لماذا يختلف التقلب الضمني لبلاك–شولز بين أسعار تنفيذ الخيارات؟

# Why does the implied volatility on options (with the same underlying and maturity) vary?


# Why does the implied volatility on options (with the same underlying and maturity) vary?












Having studied the basic premises behind option pricing, I thought it would be interesting to look at some real-world options data. I found the following quotes for options on APPL:

https://finance.yahoo.com/quote/AAPL/options?date=1610668800

However, I was surprised to see that the implied volatility for these options varies quite signigicantly, despite having the same underlying and maturity.

Why is this?

## Answer by Bikenfly (score 1)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/58578

Bear in mind that the IV you see quoted is Black Scholes IV. The only takeaway can be that the BS model is not the correct model to ACCURATELY price options. Differing IVs are the "fudge" to get better pricing and that option quoting (at the market maker level) really occurs through IV and is just expressed as price. When you look at the assumptions in the BS model, they are AT LEAST the shortcoming of the model (no commissions, continuous price movements, returns are gaussian...) and are return even gaussian? Some research points to that some asset returns are, some returns are more fractal.

## Answer by AlRacoon (score 1)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/58579

In short, because 1) the assumption of lognormal returns does not hold in real life--the markets have more skewness and kurtosis and 2) writers of protection want to be compensated more for writing insurance on low probability but high cost events.