Annualizing Monthly Returns Without Distorting a Mean Test
Summary
The document addresses why a t-statistic can change when someone scales a monthly mean and standard deviation to annual figures but leaves the sample-size term unchanged. The response derives annual return and variance by adding monthly returns under an assumption that monthly observations are independent and identically distributed. Under that setup, the annual mean scales with the number of months while annual variance scales by that number, so annual standard deviation scales by its square root.
When the standard error is formed consistently from the same observation period, the resulting test statistic matches the statistic based on the monthly sample. The response also notes that the reference distribution uses degrees of freedom based on the monthly observations used to estimate volatility. This reasoning depends on the iid assumption and on treating returns as additive, an approximation described as suitable when returns are small. Serial dependence, compounding, or other return dynamics can make the simple annualization formulas inappropriate.
Key ideas
- Annualizing the mean and volatility alone does not preserve a t-statistic if the standard error denominator is left inconsistent.
- Under iid monthly returns, annual mean scales linearly with the period count and variance does too.
- The annual standard deviation scales with the square root of the number of periods.
- The test uses degrees of freedom tied to the monthly observations used to estimate volatility.
- Additive annualization relies on assumptions that may fail with compounding or dependent returns.
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Full text
# T-statistics on monthly returns vs annualized monthly returns
# T-statistics on monthly returns vs annualized monthly returns
eqI am very confused about a very basic question. This is probably more statistics than quantitative finance, but still, should be useful for this stackexchange board as well.
Let's assume I have monthly returns $r_1, r_2, ...., r_T$.
I can compute average return and standard deviation as:
\begin{equation} \bar{r} = \frac{1}{T} \sum_{t=1}^T r_i \end{equation}
I can compute standard deviation of return as: \begin{equation} \sigma_r = \sqrt{\frac{1}{T-1} \sum_{t=1}^T(r_i - \bar{r})^2} \end{equation}
Thus if I want to test whether the mean is equal to zero I can build the t-statistic:
\begin{equation} t-stat = \frac{\bar{r}}{\sigma_r/\sqrt{T}} \end{equation}
Now assume I annualize the mean and the standard deviation by making:
\begin{equation} \bar{r}^{annual} = \bar{r} \times 12 \end{equation}
\begin{equation} \sigma_{r}^{annual} = \sigma_r \times \sqrt{12} \end{equation}
Now if I compute the same t-stat, as above I get:
\begin{equation} t-stat^{annual} = \frac{\bar{r}^{annual}}{\sigma^{annual}_r/\sqrt{T}} = \sqrt{12} (t-stat) \end{equation}
My question is what am I doing wroing? Why is the t-stat becoming multiplied by sqrt(12)? If instead I first annualize the returns series $r_i$ by making $r_i \times 12$ this doesn't happen, and I get the same t-stat, regardless of whether I annualize or not.
## Answer by mark leeds (score 1)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/60613
This is a hopefully clearer explanation of what I've been saying in my comments. The background is that you have an average monthly return $\bar{r}_{m} = \frac{1}{12}\sum_{i=1}^{12} r_{i}$ and a monthly variance estimate $\sigma^2_{\bar{r}_{m}}$ where $\sigma^2_{\bar{r}_{m}} = \frac{\sigma^2_{r}}{12}$. In what follows, it is assumed that these estimates have already been computed.
Now, we want to convert from monthly to yearly ( we assume that the returns can be added because they are small enough ) to get the yearly return and yearly variance, so we need to make the assumption that the monthly returns are iid.
So, we want to compute
$r_{y} = \sum_{i=1}^{T} \bar{r}_m$ where $T = 12$ and $\sigma^2_{r_y} = \sum_{i=1}^T \sigma^2_{r}$ where $T = 12$.
So, after using the iid assumption and some algebra, it ends up being straightforward to show that $r_y = T \bar{r}_{m}$ and $\sigma^2_{r_y} = T \sigma^2_{r}$.
Therefore,
$\frac{r_y}{\sigma_{r_y}} = $ $ \frac{T \bar{r}_{m}}{\sqrt{T} \sigma_{r}} $ $ = \frac{\bar{r}_{m}}{\frac{\sigma_{r}}{\sqrt{T}}}$
The last term is the same estimator that the OP has defined as $t - tstat$. Finally, note that this statistic would be compared to the t-distribution with $T-1$ degrees of freedom because $\sigma_r$ consists of $T$ observations (not $\sigma_{r_{y}}$).Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.