Antithetic Sampling with Second-Moment Matching
Summary
The document works through applying antithetic sampling and second-moment matching to a finite set of standard-normal draws. Antithetic sampling pairs each draw with its negative, creating a sample with zero mean. The resulting values are then rescaled so their empirical average squared value matches the unit variance of a standard normal distribution.
The example computes the mean square across the expanded sample and divides every draw by its square root, yielding the adjusted values. This illustrates the arithmetic behind the worked solution, but it does not present a broader simulation study or quantify any improvement in convergence. The adjustment matches the sample’s second moment; it does not establish that the finite adjusted sample reproduces every feature of the normal distribution.
Key ideas
- Antithetic sampling adds the negative of each draw to the sample.
- Each draw and its negative form a pair with zero combined mean.
- Second-moment matching rescales all values using the square root of the sample mean square.
- Matching variance alone does not ensure that a finite sample matches the full normal distribution.
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Full text
# Anti-thetic sampling and second moment matching
# Anti-thetic sampling and second moment matching
Background:
This is in reference to ch 7 problem 10 of Mark Joshi's concepts of mathematical finance.
Question:
> A normal random generator produces the following draws:
$$0.68, -0.31, -0.49, -0.19, -0.72, -0.16, -1.01, -1.60, 0.88, -0.97$$ What would these draws become after antithetic sampling and second moment matching.
Solution from Joshi - The sum-square of these and their negatives is $13.3482$. Divide by $20$ to get $0.6674$, whose square root is $\pm 0.81695$. Divide the twenty numbers by this quantity to get
0.83, -0.83,
-0.38, 0.38,
-0.60, 0.60,
-0.23, 0.23,
-0.88, 0.88,
-0.20, 0.20,
-1.24, 1.24,
-1.96, 1.96,
1.08, -1.08,
-1.19, 1.19.
I am confused by this solution as there is no formula for doing this calculation in the book. If someone could point out the formula or how he goes about getting this solution would be appreciated.
## Answer by Giogre (score 2, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/63048
I have just finished working on this exercise, it is rather simple and this is also an old question, but why not share my reasoning here anyway.
As far as the first point, performing antithetic sampling obviously speeds up convergence of the MonteCarlo method by picking two numbers for each draw, instead of one, $x$ and $-x$ with mean $= 0$.
Hence the given sample doubles to a 20-elements array $S$:
$$ S = \left[ \begin{align} 0.68,&-0.68,\\ −0.31,&\; 0.31,\\ −0.49,&\; 0.49,\\ −0.19,&\; 0.19,\\ −0.72,&\; 0.72,\\ −0.16,&\; 0.16,\\ −1.01,&\; 1.01,\\ −1.60,&\; 1.60,\\ 0.88,&\; -0.88,\\ −0.97,&\; 0.97 \end{align}\right] $$
Then in the second point we are asked to perform a second moment matching on $S$. We essentially need to rescale the draws in $S$ so that $$ \mathbb{E}[S^2] = \mathbb{E}[(N(0,1))^2] = \sigma^2_N = 1 $$
Compute $\mathbb{E}[S^2]$:
$$ \mathbb{E}[S^2] = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^{20} s_i^2}{20} = 0.66741 $$
with $s_i$ being the single draws in $S$.
In order to transform $\mathbb{E}[S^2]$ from $0.66741$ to $1$, each $s_i^2$ needs to be divided by $0.66741$. This way the denominator in the sum above will be $20 \cdot 0.66741$, and as a consequence $\mathbb{E}[S^2] = 1$. Thus the normalised set of draws $S$ will be, for $i = 1, 2, \dots, 20$:
$$ S = \frac{s_i}{\sqrt{0.66741}} = \left[ \begin{align} 0.83,& \, -0.83,\\ -0.38,& \, 0.38,\\ -0.60,& \, 0.60,\\ -0.23,& \, 0.23,\\ -0.88,& \, 0.88,\\ -0.20,& \, 0.20,\\ -1.24,& \, 1.24,\\ -1.96,& \, 1.96,\\ 1.08,& \, -1.08,\\ -1.19,& \, 1.19 \end{align} \right] $$Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.