Approximating Forward Swap Rates from Spot Swap Rates
Summary
The document explains why a forward-starting swap rate can be approximated from two spot-starting swap rates. In the example, the rate for a swap beginning after three years and lasting two years is estimated from the five-year and three-year spot swap rates, weighted by their respective maturities. Under simplified assumptions, a longer swap rate behaves like an average of the earlier period and the later forward period, so subtracting the shorter swap’s contribution isolates the forward segment.
The explanation first assumes a flat, zero discount curve and equal accrual periods, making swap rates averages of forecast floating rates. A second derivation uses discounted cash flows and shows that the approximation follows when discount factors are close to one, such as for short maturities or a low-rate environment. With material discounting, non-flat curves, differing accrual conventions, or multiple curves, the simple maturity-weighted formula is not exact; a full valuation using appropriate discount and forward curves is needed.
Key ideas
- Under simplified assumptions, spot swap rates act like maturity-weighted averages of forward rates.
- A forward-period swap rate can be isolated by subtracting the shorter spot swap contribution from the longer one.
- The approximation is closest when discount factors are near one and accrual conventions align.
- For realistic curve shapes and discounting, calculate the forward swap using discounted cash flows.
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Full text
# Compute forward swap rate from spot swap rate?
# Compute forward swap rate from spot swap rate?
I am pretty new to interest rate swap and this question might sound silly.
Why does 3y2y (3yr forward and 2yr tenor) swap rate roughly equal to (5*5y swap - 3*3y swap) / (5-3)?
Any explanation would be helpful!
## Answer by river_rat (score 1, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/65651
The 5y swap is effectively the weighted average of the 2y and 3y2y swap if discount rates are low enough and maturities are short enough. Lets suppose your discount curve is flat and zero, so all we have is a set of forecast libors from which we calculate fair swap rates. Then we know the following: $$S_{5y} = \frac{1}{4\times5}\sum_{i=0}^{i=4\times5}F_i$$ $$S_{3y} = \frac{1}{4\times3}\sum_{i=0}^{i=4\times3}F_i$$ $$S_{3y2y} = \frac{1}{4\times2}\sum_{i=4\times3+1}^{i=4\times5}F_i$$
Its easy to see then that $$2 \times S_{3y2y} = 5 \times S_{5y} - 3 \times S_{3y}$$ and so the closer our discount curve is to flat and zero the closer this relationship is to true.
## Answer by Kermittfrog (score 1)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/65652
Let's have a look at this in a single curve world. The fair rate for a swap starting in $t$ and ending in $T$, $s_{t,T}$ is set such that the present values of the floating and the fixed leg are equal, i.e.:
$$ s_{t,T}=\frac{\sum_{u=t}^T \tilde{\Delta_u} F_{u-\tilde{\Delta_u}, u}D_u}{\sum_{u=t}^{T}\Delta_uD_u} $$ where $\tilde{\Delta}$ and $\Delta$ are the legs' accrual period factors and $D_u$ is the discount factor for a cashflow at time $u$.
To a first order of approximation, for small $u$ or in a low interest rate environment, $D_u\approx 1$, i.e. $\sum_{u=t}^{T}\Delta_uD_u\approx T-t$.
Hence,
$$ \begin{align} s_{t,T}&\approx \frac{Ts_{0,T}-ts_{0,t}}{T-t}\\ &=\frac{T\frac{\sum_{u=0}^T \tilde{\Delta_u} F_{u-\tilde{\Delta_u},u}D_u}{\sum_{u=0}^{T}\Delta_uD_u}-t\frac{\sum_{u=0}^t \tilde{\Delta_u} F_{u-\tilde{\Delta_u},u}D_u}{\sum_{u=0}^{t}\Delta_uD_u}}{T-t}\\ &\approx \frac{T\frac{\sum_{u=0}^T \tilde{\Delta_u} F_{u-\tilde{\Delta_u},u}D_u}{T}-t\frac{\sum_{u=0}^t \tilde{\Delta_u} F_{u-\tilde{\Delta_u},u}D_u}{t}}{T-t}\\ &= \frac{\sum_{u=0}^T \tilde{\Delta_u} F_{u-\tilde{\Delta_u},u}D_u-\sum_{u=0}^t \tilde{\Delta_u} F_{u-\tilde{\Delta_u},u}D_u}{T-t}\\ &=\frac{\sum_{u=t}^T \tilde{\Delta_u} F_{u-\tilde{\Delta_u},u}D_u}{T-t}\\ &\approx \frac{\sum_{u=t}^T \tilde{\Delta_u} F_{u-\tilde{\Delta_u},u}D_u}{{\sum_{u=t}^{T}\Delta_uD_u}} \end{align} $$
In the first step, we apply your formula, and in the third step we use the approximation $D_u\approx 1$. In the last step, we apply that approximation again, but this time in the other direction "$1\approx D_u$".
HTH?Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.