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Asian Option Time Notation and the Turnbull-Wakeman Approximation

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Nick

Summary

The document discusses time variables used in Haug’s presentation of the Turnbull-Wakeman approximation for arithmetic-average rate options. It identifies the option’s remaining time to maturity, the original averaging-period length, the time elapsed since averaging began, and the time until the averaging period starts. It also outlines the approximation’s use of adjusted mean and variance in a generalized Black-Scholes-style formula, with special expressions when cost of carry is zero.

For an option already inside its averaging period, the answer explains the adjusted strike by separating the average’s already-fixed portion from its remaining, uncertain portion. It notes a disagreement over a quoted value-scaling instruction and recommends consulting another reference for clearer notation. The discussion is not a full derivation or independent validation of the approximation, so readers should check the source’s conventions and formulas before implementation.

Key ideas

  • The notation distinguishes time to maturity from the full averaging-period duration and its elapsed portion.
  • The time until averaging begins determines when the averaging window starts relative to pricing.
  • The Turnbull-Wakeman method approximates an arithmetic-average option using adjusted moments.
  • Once averaging has started, the adjusted strike accounts for the portion of the average already fixed.
  • The thread flags possible inconsistencies in the cited scaling instruction, so formula conventions need checking.

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# Different notations for times variable in Haug's book


# Different notations for times variable in Haug's book












I am reading the book by Haug, 2007 on the pages 186-188 one can find the Turnbull and Wakeman approximation for arithmetic avarage rate option.

> The approximation adjusts the mean and variance so that they are consistent with the exact moments of the arithmetic average. The adjusted mean, $b_a$ and variance, $\sigma_a$, are then used as input in the generalized BSM formula: $$ c \approx S e^{(b_a - r)T}N(d_1)-K e^{-rT}N(d_2), $$ $$ p \approx K e^{-rT}N(d_2) - S e^{(b_a - r)T}N(d_1), $$ $$ d_1 = \frac{\ln(S/K)+(b_a+\sigma^2_a/2)T}{\sigma_a\sqrt{T}}, \quad d_2 = d_1 - \sigma_a\sqrt{T}. $$ The volatility and cost-of-carry of the average are given: $$ \sigma_a = \sqrt{\frac{\ln(M_2)}{T}-2b_a}, \quad b_a = \frac{\ln(M_1)}{T},$$ where $$ M_1 = \frac{e^{bT}-e^{bt_1}}{b(T-t_1)}, $$ $$ M_2 = \frac{2e^{(2b+\sigma^2)T}}{(b+\sigma^2)(2b+\sigma^2)(T-t_1)^2} + \frac{2e^{(2b+\sigma^2)t_1}}{b(T-t_1)^2}\left(\frac{1}{2b+\sigma^2} - \frac{e^{b(T-t_1)}}{b+\sigma^2}\right), $$ if $b = 0$, then $$M_1=1$$ and $$ M_2 = \frac{2e^{\sigma^2 T}-2e^{\sigma^2 t_1}(1+\sigma^2(T-t_1))}{\sigma^4(T-t_1)^2}, $$ where $t_1$ - is the time to the beginning of the average period. Extension to hold for options on futures. If the option is into the average period, the strike price must be replaced by $\hat{K}$, and option value must be multiplied by $T_2/T$, where $$ \hat{K} = \frac{T_2}{T} K - \frac{\tau}{T} S_{ave}, $$ where $\tau=T_2-T$ - is the reminding time in the average period, $T_2$ -- original time in average period in years, constant over life of options. If we are into the average period, $\tau>0$ and $\frac{T_2}{T} K - \frac{\tau}{T} S_{ave}<0$, then a call option will for certain be exercised and is equal to the expected value of the average at maturity minus the strike price $$ e^{-rT}(\mathbb{E}(S_{ave})-K),$$ where the expected average at maturity is equal to $$\mathbb{E}(S_{ave})=S_{ave}\frac{T_2-T}{T_2} + S \cdot M_1 \frac{T}{T_2}. $$

In the quote above one can see four different notations for times: $t_ 1$, $\tau$, $T_ 2$ and $T$. $T$ is standard notation, while the $t_ 1$, $\tau$, and $T_ 2$ are not.

Question. Could some one explain what does mean $\tau$, $T_ 2$ and $t_1$ with a visualisation for these notationds on a timeline?

$t_1$ - the time to the beginning of the average period.

$\tau$ - the reminding time in the average period.

$T_2$ - original time in average period in years, constant over life of options.

$T$ - time to maturity in years of options.

My attempt in days is:

Ref. Espen G. Haug. The Complete Guide To Option Pricing Formulas. McGraw Hill, 2007

## Answer by Jayfish (score 1)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/79095

Just reading these section for Asian option too. Also found those notation annoying. Especially, discriptions below cannot make any sense.

The adjusted strike comes from the idea:

CallOption(at maturity)

= max{ $S^{fixing}_{avg} * \frac{T_2-T}{T_2}$ +$S^{nonfixing}_{avg} * \frac{T}{T_2}$ -K , 0}

= $\frac{T}{T_2}$ max{ $S^{nonfixing}_{avg}$ -(K * $\frac{T_2}{T}$-$S^{fixing}_{avg} * \frac{T_2 -T}{T}$) , 0}

Here,

$T_2$ : times between option start date and option maturity date.

$T$ : times between pricing date to opiton maturity date.

$T_2-T$ : times from start date to pricing date, which already past. Same as $\tau$ in Haug's book.

under these notation, "the option value must multiplied by $\frac{T_2}{T}$" is incorrect obviously.

Would suggest read John Hull's book Ch.26 (26.13 Asian option in 9th edition) and its technical Note. May find it much more friendly in notation. (Especially, the moment $M_1 M_2$ in Hull's book really means the moment for underlying asset, which have a big differece compared to Haug's notation.)

Also wish there will be next version of Haug's book to correct the whole asian option chapter lol.

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.