Bias Correction for a Sample Standard Deviation Volatility Estimate
Summary
The answer explains why multiplying a volatility estimate by a factor close to one can correct bias in a first-exit-time volatility calculation. It distinguishes the unbiased sample variance from the sample standard deviation: taking the square root of an unbiased variance estimate does not generally give an unbiased standard deviation estimate, because the square root is concave. Under the stated sample assumptions, the sample standard deviation is related to a chi distribution, which yields its expected value as a slightly inflated multiple of the population standard deviation.
The correction factor is the reciprocal of that approximate inflation, so applying it adjusts the estimate toward the target standard deviation. The derivation relies on the usual sampling setup behind Cochran’s theorem and gives an asymptotic approximation rather than an exact correction for every sample size or distribution. The explanation motivates the adjustment statistically, but does not discuss how first-exit-time sampling may affect those assumptions or validate the estimator on market data.
Key ideas
- An unbiased sample variance does not imply an unbiased sample standard deviation after taking its square root.
- The concavity of the square root causes downward bias in the square root of an unbiased variance estimate.
- Under the stated assumptions, the sample standard deviation’s expectation follows from a chi-distribution result.
- Multiplying by the reciprocal of its approximate inflation corrects the standard deviation estimate.
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# First Exit Time Based Volatility
# First Exit Time Based Volatility
I'm hoping that someone could help better explain why $\sigma$ (equation 2.19) must be multiplied by $\frac{4n}{4n + 1}$. Obviously all the math is there. Perhaps someone can make this easier to understand.
Reference is here:
http://books.google.com/books?id=mhB8Yx8jshcC&pg=PA25
## Answer by aajajim (score 5, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/10059
Before answering our question, I would like to remind you of the following definition:
Unbiased Estimator: $\hat{\theta}$ is an unbiased estimator of $\theta$ if $\mathbb{E}[\hat{\theta}]=\theta$.
Let's assume having a sample $\{x_1, x_2,..., x_n\}$, and you want an Unbiased Estimator of it's variance $\sigma^2$, then the following estimator satisfies this property :
$\hat{\sigma^2} = \frac{1}{n-1}\sum_{i=1}^{n}(x_i - \hat{\bar{x}})^2$, where $\hat{\bar{x}}=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_i$ (which is also an unbiased estimator of the mean $\bar{x}$).
But if you want an unbiased estimator of the standard deviation $\sigma$, then you cannot just take the square root of $\hat{\sigma^2}$, because due to the Jensen's Inequality applied to the case of a concave function $x \rightarrow \phi(x)$ (which the case of $x \rightarrow \sqrt x$) taking the square root of the previous estimator leads to an biased estimator of the standard deviation.
But fortunately, an application of Cochran's Theorem shows that:
if we denote $s = \sqrt{\frac{1}{n-1}\sum_{i=1}^{n}(x_i - \hat{\bar{x}})^2}$ then $\sqrt{n-1}\frac{s}{\sigma}$ has a $\chi_{n-1}$ distribution. Which leads to :
$\mathbb{E}[s]= (\sqrt{\frac{2}{n-1}}\frac{\Gamma(\frac{n}{2})}{\Gamma(\frac{n-1}{2})}) \sigma = (1 + \frac{1}{4n} + O(\frac{1}{n^2})) \sigma = (\frac{4n+1}{4n} + O(n^{-2}))\sigma\approx\frac{4n+1}{4n}\sigma$
Hence if you want to get an unbiased estimator of the standard deviation (to a certain approximation) you need to use:
$s' = \frac{4n}{4n+1} s$ and thus $$\mathbb{E}[s']= \frac{4n}{4n+1} \mathbb{E}[s]=(\frac{4n}{4n+1})(\frac{4n+1}{4n})\sigma = \sigma$$
I hope this will help!Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.