Binary Option Delta Rises Sharply Near Expiry at the Strike
Summary
This note derives the delta of a European cash-or-nothing call that pays when the terminal asset price exceeds a strike. Under the Black–Scholes framework, the option value is the discounted probability of finishing above the strike, and differentiating it with respect to spot gives a delta proportional to the normal density at the model’s threshold, divided by volatility, spot, and the square root of time remaining.
As expiry approaches, delta is small far from the strike but forms an increasingly narrow, high peak near it; at the money it tends toward an unbounded limit in the idealized model. This is unlike the finite delta intuition often applied to vanilla options. The discussion notes that traders can smooth digital exposure with longer-dated options or a spread structure, but those choices affect cost. The result assumes the stated pricing model and idealized payoff; it does not give a practical hedge size under market frictions.
Key ideas
- A cash-or-nothing call’s Black–Scholes delta is obtained by differentiating its discounted exercise probability with respect to spot.
- The delta profile concentrates around the strike as expiry approaches.
- At the money, the idealized binary option delta grows without bound near expiry.
- A longer maturity or a spread structure can smooth the concentrated delta exposure.
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Full text
# Delta of binary option
# Delta of binary option
What is the Delta of an at-the-money binary option with a payout $0$ at $S(T)<100$ dollars, and payout of $1$ at $S(T)>100$ dollars, as it approaches expiry?
This is from a sample interview exam. I understand that Delta essentially measures the change in the derivative price relative to the change in the asset price, as trading on the open market.
How do I actually go about computing Delta for a particular situation like the one above? I've been unable to find a formula for it on Google which is a bit weird? My naive guess is that the answer should be 0.5 but I'm not sure why?
## Answer by dm63 (score 7, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/23273
If it wasn't clear from the previous answers, the answer they want is that the delta becomes infinite. That's because a tiny move in the stock will change the payout by $100 so your delta hedge must be enormous.
## Answer by Neeraj (score 19)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/23271
The value of European binary call, paying \$1 if $S_T > K$ or nothing otherwise, is $$c_t=e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2)$$ where, $d_2=\frac{ln(S_t/K)+(r-\sigma^2/2)(T-t)}{\sigma \sqrt{T-t}}$
Delta of your binary call option is $$\Delta_t=\frac{\partial c_t}{\partial S_t}=\frac{e^{-r(T-t)}N'(d_2)}{\sigma S_t \sqrt{T-t}}$$
Derivation
We need to compute $$\Delta_t=\frac{\partial c_t}{\partial S_t}$$
$$\frac{\partial c_t}{\partial S_t}=\frac{\partial}{\partial S_t}\bigg(e^{-r(T-t)}N(d_2)\bigg)=e^{-r(T-t)}\frac{\partial}{\partial S_t}N(d_2)$$
$$\frac{\partial}{\partial S_t}N(d_2)=\frac{\partial}{\partial S_t} \int_{-\infty}^{d_2} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac{1}{2}x^2}dx$$
where $d_2=f(S_t)$. Using Leibniz integral rule
$$ \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x} \left (\int_{a(x)}^{b(x)}f(x,t)\,\mathrm{d}t \right) = f(x,b(x))\cdot b'(x) - f(x,a(x))\cdot a'(x) + \int_{a(x)}^{b(x)} \frac{\partial}{\partial x}f(x,t)\; \mathrm{d}t. $$
So, $$\frac{\partial}{\partial S_t} \int_{-\infty}^{d_2} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac{1}{2}x^2}dx=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac{1}{2}d_2^2} \frac{\partial}{\partial S_t} (d_2)$$
You may check it yourself that $$\frac{\partial d_2}{\partial S_t}=\frac{1}{S_t \sigma \sqrt{T-t}}$$
Putting all the results together
$$\frac{\partial c_t}{\partial S_t}=\frac{e^{-r(T-t)}N'(d_2)}{\sigma S_t \sqrt{T-t}}$$ where $N'(d_2)$ denote the standard normal probability density function,
Relationship between Binary option delta and Time to expiry @dm63 already provided a brief answer to your question how delta will respond as option will approach its expiry, below I have shown more accurate relationship Ref: http://www.binaryoptions.com/binary-option-greeks/binary-call-option-delta
You can see as the time to expiry decrease the delta of an at-the-money option approaches to infinity. Because a small change in stock price ($\epsilon$), assume $S_t=K$ and option is near maturity, will cause the option payoff to change its value by \$1 (as information provided in OP). So, option delta $\Delta_t= \frac{1}{\epsilon} \to \infty$. You may also check this result from formula derived above.
## Answer by HyperVol (score 4)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/23272
Delta of a digital (or binary) option is like the normal distribution probability function , approaching 0 at far OTM / ITM conditions and representing a very high peak at ATM.
The peak at ATM approaches infinity as we approach the maturity. This is never 0.5 like a vanilla option since the payoff never simulates the payoff of the underlying.
If you want to have an approximation for delta at ATM , I'd suggest you to either use longer dated options , or to use a spread to smoothen out the delta at ATM. That's how the traders smoothen out the deltas of digital products while hedging. That structure may be slightly costly though !
## Answer by Rafael Velásquez (score 2)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/46859
A fun thing about binary options is that ATM close to expiration the delta turns into a Dirac Delta which is a function originally created in theoretical physics.
Nassim Taleb explains it in pg 286 of this link: http://docs.finance.free.fr/Options/Dynamic_Hedging-Taleb.pdfShown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.