Brownian Motion Squared Increments and Quadratic Variation
Summary
The document explains why squared Brownian increments contribute at the order of elapsed time in Itô calculus. It distinguishes a Brownian increment over a small interval, represented in distribution as a standard normal variable times the square root of the interval, from the normal variable itself. The increment’s square remains random over a finite interval, but its expectation is the interval length and its variance shrinks at the square of that length.
The discussion interprets the shorthand that a Brownian increment squared equals time as a limiting or quadratic-variation statement, rather than as an exact equality for each increment. Summing squared increments along increasingly fine partitions gives the Brownian path’s quadratic variation. The document also cautions that differential notation can obscure what random quantity is being discussed. Its explanation is intuitive and relies on limiting behavior; it does not develop a formal stochastic-calculus proof.
Key ideas
- A Brownian increment over an interval has variance equal to the interval length.
- A standard normal variable scaled by the square root of the interval has the same increment distribution.
- The squared increment has an expectation proportional to the interval and a variance proportional to its square.
- The identity between a squared Brownian differential and time expresses a limiting quadratic-variation property.
- Differential notation can hide whether a statement concerns one increment or a limit over many increments.
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# Itos Lemma Derivation notation
# Itos Lemma Derivation notation
So in Hull (2012) the main point is that $\Delta x^2 = b^2 \epsilon ^2 \Delta t + $higher order terms$ $ has a term of order $\Delta t$ and can not be ignored as the Brownian motion exhibits the quadratic variation of $\Delta t$. My question is now what does $\epsilon ^2$ correspond to. Cochrane (2005) notes that $dz^2 = dt$, so I was confused since Hull defines $dz$ as $\epsilon \sqrt dt $. Hence, $dz^2$ would imply $\epsilon^2 dt $. As $\epsilon$ is standard normally distributed the mean would be zero and the variance one this would imply in $\Delta x^2 = b^2 \epsilon ^2 \Delta t$ that $b^2 \epsilon ^2 \Delta t$ would in the limit as $\Delta t$ goes to zero equal to $b^2 \Delta t$ as $E(\epsilon^2)$ =1. Hull argues that the variance of $\epsilon \Delta t $ would become too small and hence, lose its stochastic component and then equal to its expected value in the limit, but I didn't quite understand that. My only explanation would be that $\epsilon^2$ equals to one, but isn't it that $E(\epsilon^2) = 1$?
## Answer by Magic is in the chain (score 6)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/55138
The theory behind the actual reasoning is a bit complicated than the coverage in Hull's, but staying within the simple reasoning, the difference comes down to the following:
The Brownian increments over the interval $dt$ are normally distributed with mean zero and variance $dt$, so in terms of distribution, you can express the increments in terms of a standard normal: $dw_t \sim \epsilon \, \sqrt{dt}$. You can easily verify this: a constant times a normal is normal, the mean of $\sqrt{dt}$ times a standard normal is equal to zero, and the variance is equal to $dt \times \mathrm{variance \, of\, standard \, normal} =dt\times 1=dt$.
$dw_t$ and $\epsilon$ are random variables, so $dw_t^2=dt$ means this equality in some probabilistic/limiting sense. You can take that to mean variance, or $E\left[dw_t^2\right]$ because means of $dw_t$ is zero. But actually this equality holds in a much stronger sense - think of a simulated brownian path, and if you let the number of intervals become very large, you will see the sum of squared of brownian increments become equal to $dt$.
But for everyday use, you can assume $dw_t \sim \epsilon \, \sqrt{dt}$ and $dw_t^2 =dt$, thinking of $dw_t^2$ as variance or sum of the squares of the increments of brownians when the interval is divided into a very large number of sub-intervals.
## Answer by Jan Stuller (score 3)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/55142
I think the question also brings up a common confusion with notation. I think it is incredibly unfortunate to use notation such as $dW(t)$ (unless it's part of a stochastic integral), and I get upset when I see it being used in textbooks.
The definition of Brownian Motion is implicit and goes like this:
(i) $W(t=0) = 0$
(ii) $W(t)$ is (almost surely) continuous
(iii) $W(t)$ has independent increment
(iv) The increments $W(t) - W(s): t\geq s \geq0$ are normally distributed with mean zero and variance = (t-s).
What variance does $dW(t)$ have? In my opinion it's difficult to discuss that. Do we actually mean $W(dt)$ (so the variance is infinitesimal?)? Or more like $W(\delta t)$, so the variance is $\delta t$, i.e. very tiny? I have never seen a serious lecturer use the notation $dW(t)$ (aside from Stochastic integrals). I think discussing the quantity $dW(t)$ outside of Stochastic integrals doesn't make sense. Instead let's use $W(\delta t)$, in which case we can discuss its distribution.
Back to the question: In Hull, $Z$ confusingly refers to $W$ and $\epsilon$ refers to the Standard Normal random variable.
So when Hull writes $dZ = \epsilon \sqrt(dt)$, he really means to say that $Z(\delta t)$ equals in distribution to $\epsilon \sqrt(\delta t)$. Now:
$$ \mathbb{E}\left[\epsilon \sqrt{\delta t}\right]=0$$
$$\mathbb{E}[(\epsilon \sqrt{\delta t})^2]=Var(\epsilon \sqrt{\delta t})=\delta t Var(\epsilon)= \delta t$$
$$Var\left((\epsilon \sqrt{\delta t})^2\right) = Var \left( \epsilon^2 \delta t\right)= \delta t^2 Var \left( \epsilon^2 \right)$$
Above, the first equality is true because trivially $\mathbb{E}[\epsilon]=0$ by definition of standard normal variable. The second equality is true because trivially $Var(\epsilon)=1$, again by definition of standard normal variable. The third equality is true because for any random variable $X$, $Var(aX)=a^2Var(X)$.
In the third equality, one can see that irrespective of what $Var \left( \epsilon^2 \right)$ actually is, the term $Var \left( \epsilon^2 \delta t\right)$ is going to be of order $\delta t^2$.
So really, when someone writes $dz^2 = dt$, they actually mean to say that $Z(\delta t)^2$ converges to a non-stochastic quantity when $\delta t$ gets really small, because the Variance is of order $\delta t^2$, so the variance quickly converges to zero (and Random Variable with no variance is no longer random). The expected value of $Z(\delta t)^2$ is $\delta t$ as shown above, so in conclusion, $Z(\delta t)^2$ converges fast to non-random variable $\delta t$ when $\delta t$ gets arbitrarily close to zero.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.