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Calculating Portfolio Risk Contributions in Standard Deviation Terms

Article Quant Q&A · Author: milkmotel

Summary

The document explains why dividing each asset’s variance contribution by total portfolio variance gives additive percentages, while dividing standalone standard deviation components by portfolio standard deviation does not. It rejects normalizing those component standard deviations by their sum as a direct contribution measure.

Instead, it derives marginal contribution to portfolio volatility by differentiating the two-asset portfolio standard deviation with respect to each asset’s weight. Multiplying each derivative by its asset weight gives total risk contribution in volatility units. A worked example with two assets, specified volatilities, correlation, and weights reports contributions that sum to the portfolio standard deviation. The method relies on the standard deviation function and covariance structure shown; the example is limited to a two-asset portfolio, though the marginal contribution approach generalizes through portfolio gradients.

Key ideas

  • Variance contributions add to total variance, but the square-root components do not add to portfolio standard deviation.
  • Marginal contribution to volatility is the derivative of portfolio standard deviation with respect to an asset’s weight.
  • Multiplying marginal contribution by the asset weight gives that asset’s total contribution to portfolio risk.
  • The worked two-asset example demonstrates contributions that sum to portfolio volatility.

Tags

Full text
# Converting Contribution To Risk from Variance to Stdev


# Converting Contribution To Risk from Variance to Stdev












So we have the basic structure:

$\sigma^2_{Pxy} = w_x^2 \sigma_x^2 + w_y^2 \sigma_y^2 + 2 w_x w_y \sigma_{xy}$

$\sigma^2_{Px} = w_x^2 \sigma_x^2 + w_x w_y \sigma_{xy}$

$\sigma^2_{Py} = w_y^2 \sigma_y^2 + w_x w_y \sigma_{xy}$

$\sigma^2_{Pxy} = \sigma^2_{Px} + \sigma^2_{Py}$

The problem is that this structure leaves the risk measure in terms of variance, so if we want to find percentage contribution to risk, it doesn't easily translate from variance to standard deviation.

Meaning, it is easy to solve for:

$ \cfrac{\sigma^2_{Px}}{\sigma^2_{Pxy}} =$ percentage contribution to risk (variance), as

$ \cfrac{\sigma^2_{Px}}{\sigma^2_{Pxy}} + \cfrac{\sigma^2_{Py}}{\sigma^2_{Pxy}} = 1$

But, it is not easy to solve for:

$ \cfrac{\sigma_{Px}}{\sigma_{Pxy}} =$ percentage contribution to risk (std dev), as

$ \cfrac{\sigma_{Px}}{\sigma_{Pxy}} + \cfrac{\sigma_{Py}}{\sigma_{Pxy}} \ne 1$

Additionally, it isn't right to just scale it to whatever the square root of the percentages happen to sum to.

If $ x = \cfrac{\sigma_{Px}}{\sigma_{Pxy}}$ and $ y = \cfrac{\sigma_{Py}}{\sigma_{Pxy}}$, it is not clear what $ \cfrac{x}{x + y}$ equals.

Does anyone have a solution to this problem?

## Answer by AK88 (score 2, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/31412

$ \cfrac{\sigma_{Px}}{\sigma_{Pxy}} + \cfrac{\sigma_{Py}}{\sigma_{Pxy}} \ne 1$

beacuse

$ {\sigma_{Px}} + {\sigma_{Py}} \ne {\sigma_{Pxy}}$

as we had

$\sigma^2_{Px} + \sigma^2_{Py} = \sigma^2_{Pxy}$

and this is equal to

$\sqrt{(\sigma^2_{Px} + \sigma^2_{Py})}/\sigma^2_{Pxy} = 1$

Let me know if you want to see an example of risk contribution based on standard deviations of the constituent assets.

UPDATE:

Since

$\sigma^2_{Pxy} = w_x^2 \sigma_x^2 + w_y^2 \sigma_y^2 + 2 w_x w_y \sigma_{x} \sigma_{y} \rho_{xy}$

the standard deviation of the portfolio is

$\sigma_{Pxy} = \sqrt{w_x^2 \sigma_x^2 + w_y^2 \sigma_y^2 + 2 w_x w_y \sigma_{x} \sigma_{y} \rho_{xy}}$

Now find the marginal risk contribution of asset $x$ by taking the derivative of the portfolio standard deviation with respect to $w_x$ (the weight of asset $x$):

$\cfrac {d \sigma_{Pxy}} {d w_x} = \cfrac {d \sqrt{w_x^2 \sigma_x^2 + w_y^2 \sigma_y^2 + 2 w_x w_y \sigma_{x} \sigma_{y} \rho_{xy}}} {d w_x} = \cfrac {d (w_x^2 \sigma_x^2 + w_y^2 \sigma_y^2 + 2 w_x w_y \sigma_{x} \sigma_{y} \rho_{xy})^{1/2}} {d w_x} = \cfrac {1} {2 (w_x^2 \sigma_x^2 + w_y^2 \sigma_y^2 + 2 w_x w_y \sigma_{x} \sigma_{y} \rho_{xy})^{1/2}} (2 w_x \sigma_x^2 + 2 w_y \sigma_{x} \sigma_{y} \rho_{xy}) = \cfrac {w_x \sigma_x^2 + w_y \sigma_{x} \sigma_{y} \rho_{xy}} {\sigma_{Pxy}}$

Total risk contributed by asset $x$ to the portfolio is equal to

$\cfrac {w_x \sigma_x^2 + w_y \sigma_{x} \sigma_{y} \rho_{xy}} {\sigma_{Pxy}} w_x = \cfrac {w_x^2 \sigma_x^2 + w_x w_y \sigma_{x} \sigma_{y} \rho_{xy}} {\sigma_{Pxy}}$

Likewise, total risk contributed by asset $y$ to the portfolio is

$\cfrac {w_y \sigma_y^2 + w_x \sigma_{x} \sigma_{y} \rho_{xy}} {\sigma_{Pxy}} w_y = \cfrac {w_y^2 \sigma_y^2 + w_x w_y \sigma_{x} \sigma_{y} \rho_{xy}} {\sigma_{Pxy}}$

Example: $\sigma_{x} = 15%$; $\sigma_{y} = 20%$; $\rho_{xy} = 0.5$; $w_x = 60%$; $w_y = 40%$;

So we have: $\sigma_{Pxy} = 14.73%$;

Risk contributions to the portfolio: $\sigma_{Px} = 7.94%$; $\sigma_{Py} = 6.79%$;

Is this what you were looking for?

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This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.