Closed-Form Pricing of a Squared-Average Asian Option
Summary
The document considers an Asian-style payoff equal to the square of the time average of an asset following geometric Brownian motion under risk-neutral dynamics. It asks whether the discounted conditional expectation has a closed-form value, noting that the integral of a geometric Brownian motion does not have a simple distribution. The accepted answer decomposes the squared average into terms involving the accumulated average up to the valuation time, the future integral, and the square of that future integral.
It then computes the first and second moments of the future integral using the risk-neutral stock process and Brownian increment properties, and combines them into a pricing expression. Another response points to established work on closed-form results, while a further suggestion uses the discounted asset martingale and Itô isometry. The supplied derivation contains apparent algebraic and notation inconsistencies, including in its final expression, so its formula should be independently verified. The discussion does not provide numerical examples, implementation guidance, or conditions for edge cases such as parameter limits.
Key ideas
- The payoff depends on the square of the time average of a geometric Brownian asset price.
- The pricing approach expands the squared total integral into past, cross, and future terms.
- The future integral’s first and second moments can be computed from risk-neutral dynamics.
- The document points to closed-form literature and an alternative martingale-based derivation.
- The presented derivation has apparent inconsistencies and should be checked before implementation.
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Full text
# Price of an asian option with squared of average payoff
# Price of an asian option with squared of average payoff
Is there a closed form solution of the following price formula? Assuming $dS_t=rSdt+\sigma S_t dW_t$ under the Q dynamics
$e^{-r(T-t)}\mathbb{E}_t^\mathcal{Q}[(\frac{(\int_0^T S_u du)}{T})^2]$
I know that the integral of a geometric brownian motion has no nice distribution, but is it the same with the square of the integral?
## Answer by Juan Imbet (score 2, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/17009
The $P$ dynamics of the underlying asset are: \begin{align*} dS=S(\mu dt+\sigma dB_t) \end{align*} That has the following solution under the $\mathcal{Q}$ dynamics: \begin{align*} S_t=S_0 e^{(r-\frac{\sigma^2}{2})t+\sigma W_t} \end{align*} Where $W_t$ is the equivalent martingale with respect to the original geometric brownian motion. Define $Y_t=\int_0^t S_u du$, then according to Feynman-Kac the value of the replicating portfolio is given by \begin{align*} V_t&=e^{-r(T-t)}\frac{1}{T^2}\mathbb{E}_t^\mathcal{Q}[(Y_t+\int_t^T S_udu)^2)\\ &=\frac{e^{-r(T-t)}}{T^2} \mathbb{E}_t^\mathcal{Q}[Y_t^2 + 2Y_t \int_t^T S_u du + (\int_t^T S_u du)^2]\\ \end{align*} So: \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}_t^\mathcal{Q}[\int_t^T S_u du]&=S_t \mathbb{E}_t^\mathcal{Q}[\int_t^T \frac{S_u}{S_t} du]\\ &=S_t \int_t^T e^{(r-\frac{\sigma^2}{2})(u-t)}\mathbb{E}^\mathcal{Q}[e^{\sigma (W_u-W_t)}] du\\ \end{align*} Since $W_u-W_t$ follows $\mathcal{N}(0, u-t)$ under $Q$. According to the m.g.f. \begin{align*} &=S_t \int_t^T e^{r(u-t)}du\\ &=\frac{S_t}{r}(e^{r(T-t)}-1)\\ &=\frac{x}{r}(e^{r(T-t)}-1) \end{align*} Lets compute now the expectation of the square of the integral: \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}_t^\mathcal{Q}[(\int_t^T S_u du)^2]&=S_t^2 \mathbb{E}_t^\mathcal{Q}[\int_t^T \frac{S_u}{S_t}du \int_t^T \frac{S_v}{S_t}dv ]\\ &= S_t^2 \int_t^T \int_t^T \mathbb{E}^\mathcal{Q}[\frac{S_u}{S_t} \frac{S_v}{S_t}]dv du\\ \end{align*} Lets focus on: $\mathbb{E}^\mathcal{Q}[\frac{S_u}{S_t} \frac{S_v}{S_t}]$, lets assum $t \leq v \leq u$ \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}^\mathcal{Q}[\frac{S_u}{S_t} \frac{S_v}{S_t}&=\mathbb{E}^\mathcal{Q}[e^{(r-\frac{\sigma^2}{2})(u-t)+\sigma(W_u-W_t))}e^{(r-\frac{\sigma^2}{2})(v-t)+\sigma(W_v-W_t))}]\\ &=e^{(r-\frac{\sigma^2}{2})(u-t)+(r-\frac{\sigma^2}{2})(v-t)}\mathbb{E}^\mathcal{Q}[e^{\sigma(W_u-W_v)+2\sigma (W_v-W_t)}]\\ &=e^{(r-\frac{\sigma^2}{2})(u-t)+(r-\frac{\sigma^2}{2})(v-t)}\mathbb{E}^\mathcal{Q}[e^{\sigma(W_u-W_v)}]\mathbb{E}^\mathcal{Q}[e^{2\sigma(W_u-W_t)}]\\ &=e^{(r-\frac{\sigma^2}{2})(u-t)+(r-\frac{\sigma^2}{2})(v-t)}e^{\frac{\sigma^2}{2}(u-v)}e^{2\sigma^2(v-t)}\\ &= e^{ur}e^{u(r+\sigma^2)}e^{-t(2r+\sigma^2)} \end{align*} So: \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}_t^\mathcal{Q}[(\int_t^T S_u du)^2]&=2S_t^2 \int_t^T \int_t^u e^{ur}e^{u(r+\sigma^2)}e^{-t(2r+\sigma^2)}dv du\\ &= \frac{2x^2}{r+\sigma^2}(\frac{1}{2r+\sigma^2}e^{(2r+\sigma^2)(T-t)}-\frac{1}{r}e^{r(T-t)}+\frac{r+\sigma^2}{(2r+\sigma^2)r}) \end{align*} Mixing everything together we get: \begin{align*} V(t,x,y)&=\frac{y^2}{T^2}e^{rt-rT}+\frac{1}{T^2}\frac{2xy}{r}(1-e^{rt-rT})\\ &+ \frac{1}{T^2}\frac{2x^2}{r+\sigma^2}(\frac{1}{2r+\sigma^2}e^{(r+\sigma^2)(T-t)}-\frac{1}{r}+\frac{r+\sigma^2}{(2r+\sigma^2)r}e^{-r(T-t)}) \end{align*}
## Answer by q.t.f. (score 4)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/17005
Yes it is known in closed form. See https://www.rocq.inria.fr/mathfi/Premia/free-version/doc/premia-doc/pdf_html/asian_doc/asian_doc.html section 5.1 which references an older Geman-Yor paper.
## Answer by AFK (score 2)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/16997
A few tips. First note that $e^{-rt}S_t$ is a martingale. So make it appear and then integrate by part to rewrite $\int S_u du$ as a stochastic integral. Finally use the Ito isometry property.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.