Combining Bond Durations to Immunize a Liability
Summary
The document clarifies how to combine bonds to immunize a liability using present value and Macaulay duration. Duration is not added directly across assets: a portfolio’s duration is the value-weighted average of the component durations. To form a linear equation for matching liability exposure, multiply each asset duration by its present value and equate the resulting dollar-duration totals.
The example concerns an eight-year liability and a portfolio of a five-year coupon bond and a ten-year zero-coupon bond. It gives a five-year bond duration of about 4.393 years and a zero-coupon duration equal to its maturity, then shows that portfolio weights can be solved alongside the present-value constraint. The numerical illustration relies on stated yield and discount assumptions, and a second answer contains inconsistent details, so the general weighted-duration principle is more reliable than treating every worked figure as definitive. Duration matching also does not by itself establish protection against all yield-curve changes.
Key ideas
- Portfolio Macaulay duration is the market-value-weighted average of its assets’ durations.
- Duration values cannot be summed without weighting them by the corresponding present values.
- Immunization requires matching both asset and liability present values and duration exposure.
- A zero-coupon bond’s Macaulay duration equals its time to maturity.
- Duration matching depends on the yield assumptions and does not cover every possible curve movement.
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Full text
# A question on immunization and Macaulay duration
# A question on immunization and Macaulay duration
I am studying for the Society of Actuaries - Exam FM and encountered the following problem:
Let $x$ be the face amount of the 5-year bond and let $y$ be the face amount of the 10-year bond.
Since the coupon rate of the 5-year bond is the same as the yield rate, the bond is purchased at face value.
The first condition of immunization requires that:
PV(Assets) = PV(Liabilities) or
$x + \frac{y}{(1.03)^{20}} = \frac{5000}{(1.03)^{20}} = 3115.83.$
The second condition of immunization requires that
MacD(Assets) = MacD(Liabilities).
The duration of a 5-year coupon bond with semi-annual coupons that sells at its par value is $a_{10}\cdot(1.03) = 8.7862$ half-years, or 4.3931 years. ($a_{10}$ is a 10-year annuity immediate).
The duration of the 10-year zero-coupon bond is simply 10 years. The duration of the liability is 8 years.
Now here is where I am confused. Is duration linear, in the sense that the "total" duration of the assets is the sum of the duration of the individual assets?
Would we have MacD(Assets) = MacD(x) + MacD(y)?
To meet the second condition, it seems like we have 10 + 4.3931 = 8, which I don't know what to make sense of.
## Answer by Mark Joshi (score 4, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/20734
Duration is not linear. It is the weighted average of the duration of the underlyings with the weightings being their values. To get a linear system multiply the durations by the associated pvs and match that quantity instead.
## Answer by alexbougias (score 0)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/38831
The correct answer is D.1111
We have a liability of 5000 $\$$ due to 8 years. The discount rate is 6%. We have two different bonds: Bond1: 5 years to maturity with semiannual payments, 6% annualy. Bond2: 10years to maturity, zero coupon bond Both bonds have a face value equal to 100 and their market price is $ B1_t , B2_t= 100, \forall t \ to \hspace{0.2cm} maturity$.
The Macaulay duration of the liability is equal to 8. Hence $D_{liability}=8$. The zero has $D_2 =10$ by definition. The duration of the 5-year bond is:
$D_1(semiannualy)= \frac{\sum_{i=1}^{10} \frac{3i}{1.03^i}+\frac{10 *100}{1,03^{10}}}{100}=8,786$
We convert the above duration into annually $D_1=\frac{D_1(semiannualy)}{2}=4,393$
We construct a portfolio whose assets are bond1 and bond2 with weights $w_1,w_2$.
The duration of the portfolio should equal to the duration of the liability We have to solve the following $2*2$ linear equation system:
$w_1 *D_1+ w_2*D_2=D_{liability} \implies w_1*4,393+w_2*10=8$ $w_1+w_2=1$.
The solutions are: $w_1=0,3566 , w_2=0,6434$.
Assuming that rate remains constant across time. We should invest $x$ amount of the 5-year bond:
$x=\frac{5000}{1,03^{16}}*0,3566 =1111,11 \approx 1111 \$$Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.