Comparing Strategy Alphas in the Carhart Four-Factor Model
Summary
The document explains why separate Carhart four-factor alpha estimates do not, by themselves, determine which of two strategies will earn higher returns. Realized performance also depends on each strategy’s exposures to market, size, value, and momentum factors, and on how those factors perform. A strategy with negative alpha can still outperform if its factor exposures are favorable during the period.
For an alpha-based comparison, the document describes testing the difference between estimated alphas. One approach compares the estimates using their standard errors; another regresses the return difference between the strategies on the same four factors and tests the resulting difference alpha. The discussion treats a significant alpha difference as evidence of relative risk-adjusted performance. It does not establish which strategy will be more profitable in the future, and its illustrations and conclusions are conditional on the specified model, sample, and statistical assumptions.
Key ideas
- Factor exposures can make total strategy profitability differ from what alpha estimates alone suggest.
- A negative significant alpha and a positive insignificant alpha do not establish which strategy earns higher total returns.
- An alpha-based comparison requires testing the difference between the strategies’ estimated alphas.
- Regressing the return difference on the same factors provides a paired way to test difference alpha.
- Conclusions about alpha do not determine future performance or account for every model limitation.
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# Comparison of Carhart alphas (four-factor model)
# Comparison of Carhart alphas (four-factor model)
I would like to compare two strategies through the alpha Carhart obtained. The idea is to find out which one is more profitable (or the least bad). For the first strategy, I obtained a significant negative alpha. For the second one, the alpha is positive but not significant.
I would like to be sure to interpret this correctly: does this mean that the first strategy underperforms the second strategy? Given that both strategies (their returns) are regressed with the same model (4-F) at the same period.
What do you think?
Thank you very much!
## Answer by kurtosis (score 1, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/55956
## Setup
From your question, I assume you have two strategies $A$ and $B$ with excess returns $R_{A,t}, R_{B,t}$. You model these excess returns using the Carhart 4-factor models (FF3 factors + the fourth monthly momentum factor which looks at winners minus losers, WML):
$$ \begin{align} R_{A,t} &= \alpha_A + \beta_{A,M} R_{M,t} + \beta_{A,HML} HML_t + \beta_{A,SMB} SMB_t + \beta_{A,WML} WML_t + \epsilon_{A,t}, \\ R_{B,t} &= \alpha_B + \beta_{B,M} R_{M,t} + \beta_{B,HML} HML_t + \beta_{B,SMB} SMB_t + \beta_{B,WML} WML_t + \epsilon_{B,t}. \end{align} $$
You find $\hat\alpha_A<0$ and is statistically significant while $\hat\alpha_B>0$ but not statistically significant.
## Questions
You ask if you can infer if:
- one strategy is more profitable than the other and, later,
- if A "underperforms" B.
## Profitability
The answer to the first question is that you cannot infer one strategy will be more profitable than the other. Depending on the betas and the factor returns, one strategy might outperform the other over any time period.
For example, suppose all betas are 1 except $\hat\beta_{A,SMB}=1.5$ and $\hat\beta_{B,HML}=1.5$. If the SMB factor has a high return and the HML factor has a return of 0, the additional exposure to SMB will allow strategy $A$ to overcome the negative $\alpha_A$. However, if the HML factor has a high return and the SMB factor has a return of 0, the additional exposure to HML will allow strategy $B$ to return more that strategy $A$.
## Outperformance
You also ask if one model "outperforms" the other. This can be interpreted as:
- profitability being higher (indeterminate, as discussed above),
- return per unit of risk being lower (also indeterminate without knowing factor betas), or
- having significantly higher alpha.
The latter definition is especially useful if we are measuring hedge fund performance -- since nobody should pay high fees for factor exposure which can be obtained cheaply.
#### Pooled $t$ -test
If we use the latter definition of outperformance, we can test the difference between $\hat\alpha_A$ and $\hat\alpha_B$ using a pooled $t$-test: check if $\left|\frac{\hat\alpha_A-\hat\alpha_B}{\sqrt{s.e.(\hat\alpha_A)^2 + s.e.(\hat\alpha_B)^2}}\right| > t_{df,97.5\%}$.
#### Paired $t$ -test
Alternately, we could construct a paired $t$-test by estimating the model $D$:
$$ R_{A,t}-R_{B,t} = \alpha_D + \beta_{D,M} R_{M,t} + \beta_{D,HML} HML_t + \beta_{D,SMB} SMB_t + \beta_{D,WML} WML_t + \epsilon_{D,t}. $$
You then check the difference alpha for significance: $\left|\frac{\hat\alpha_D}{s.e.(\hat\alpha_D)}\right|>t_{df,97.5\%}$.
#### Result
In this case, we know $\hat\alpha_A<-$ is significantly different from 0 and $\hat\alpha_B>0$. Therefore, we can conclude that for an alpha-based measure of outperformance, strategy $B$ outperforms strategy $A$.
## Answer by demully (score 0)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/55063
Sadly, your experiment doesn't prove what you want at all! ;-(
It simply says that after adjusting for style biases, one did better than the other. It's very possible that the other did better than the one, because it was more exposed to the winning styles and less exposed to the losing styles in the sample period you're looking at.
If your process can pick winning/losing style biases, these might well be significant; with your "alpha" being an insignificant rounding error to portfolio performance.
Sorry.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.