Conditional Change of Measure and Bayes’ Formula
Summary
The document asks how the conditional-expectation change-of-measure identity relates to the unconditional formula. For equivalent measures P and Q with Radon–Nikodym density dQ/dP, it recalls that an expectation under Q can be written as a P expectation weighted by that density. It then presents the conditional version, which includes the conditional expectation of the density as a denominator.
The questioner's proposed explanation—that this extra term equals one because the conditional Q expectation of one is one—is mistaken in general. The density's conditional expectation under P need not equal one; it is the ratio that normalizes the weighted conditional expectation. The discussion gives no worked resolution or financial application, so its value is conceptual: it identifies a measure-change detail relevant to conditional pricing and risk-neutral expectations. The assumptions and integrability conditions needed for the identities are not developed.
Key ideas
- Changing from P to Q weights expectations under P by the Radon–Nikodym density.
- The conditional change-of-measure identity includes a normalization by the density's conditional expectation under P.
- That conditional normalization is not generally equal to one.
- The document raises the issue but does not provide a complete derivation or application.
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Full text
# Understanding Bayes Rule of conditional expectation
# Understanding Bayes Rule of conditional expectation
Let $\mathcal{F}$ be a $\sigma$-algebra, $P$ and $Q$ be equivalent martingale measures and $\frac{dQ}{dP}$ the Radon Nikodym Derivative. I learned that $\Bbb{E}_Q[X]=\Bbb{E}_P[\frac{dQ}{dP}X] $, which makes sense if one looks at the following: $$\Bbb{E}_Q[X]=\int_\Omega X dQ=\int_\Omega X \frac{dQ}{dP} dP=\Bbb{E}_P[\frac{dQ}{dP}X]$$Recently I was introduced to the Bayes Formula for conditional expectation, which states that $$\Bbb{E}_Q[X|\mathcal{F}]\;\; \Bbb{E}_P[\frac{dQ}{dP}|\mathcal{F}]=\Bbb{E}_P[\frac{dQ}{dP}X|\mathcal{F}] $$Comparing this with the version that I learned first, the term $\Bbb{E}_P[\frac{dQ}{dP}|\mathcal{F}]$ has been included and the only explanation I have is that $$\Bbb{E}_P[\frac{dQ}{dP}|\mathcal{F}]=\Bbb{E}_Q[1|\mathcal{F}]=1$$Is this understanding correct? And if so, why bother including the term on some occasions and excluding it on other occasions? Thank you for clearing up my confusion!Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.