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Converting an Ornstein–Uhlenbeck SDE Integral with Stochastic Fubini

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Michael Mark

Summary

The document addresses two representations of the solution to a mean-reverting stochastic differential equation driven by correlated Brownian motions. Applying an integrating factor yields a term that integrates the first Brownian motion’s level over time, while the desired representation uses a stochastic integral with respect to that Brownian motion. The explanation shows how to convert between them.

One derivation writes the Brownian level as an integral of its increments, then swaps the order of integration using stochastic Fubini. Evaluating the resulting inner time integral gives a deterministic kernel multiplying the Brownian increments. An alternative uses the Itô product rule on a deterministic function times Brownian motion and rearranges the resulting identity. Both routes produce the same kernel, with the factor involving the mean-reversion parameter outside the parenthesis. The discussion gives a mathematical derivation, not empirical results; the stochastic Fubini argument depends on the stated integrability and regularity conditions.

Key ideas

  • An integrating factor gives a solution containing a time integral of Brownian levels.
  • Writing Brownian motion as an integral of its increments allows the order of integration to be exchanged.
  • The resulting stochastic integral has a deterministic kernel proportional to one minus an exponential term.
  • The Itô product rule provides an alternative derivation of the same identity.
  • The stochastic Fubini step requires suitable measurability and integrability conditions.

Tags

Full text
# Show that the two solutions of the SDE are equivalent


# Show that the two solutions of the SDE are equivalent












I have a process: $$dr_t = (W_t^1 - ar_t)dt +\sigma dW_t^2$$ where $W_t^1$ and $W_t^2$ are brownian motions with instantaneous correlation coefficient $\rho$. I want to show that the solution of this process can be written in a form: $$r_t = r_0 e^{-at}+ \int_0^tk(t,s)dW_s^1 + \sigma\int_0^th(t,s)dW_s^2$$. I started with the substitution $\tilde{r}_t = e^{at}r_t$ which led me to the solution. $$r_t = r_0 e^{-at}+ \int_0^t e^{a(s-t)}W_s^1ds + \sigma\int_0^te^{a(s-t)}dW_s^2 $$ which differs from the asked solution in the first integrand ($ds$ instead of $dW_s^1$). I thought I could use Fubini theorem but I am not quite sure how. So essentially what I would like to know is how to show that these two solutions are equivalent. Thanks for any suggestions.

## Answer by LocalVolatility (score 3, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/38741

This is a slightly extended and corrected (thanks @DaneelOlivaw) version of my comment.

Consider a process $h(t) W_t$, where $h$ is a function of time only. Using the Ito product rule, this can be expressed in integral form as

\begin{equation} h(t) W_t = \int_0^t h'(s) W_s \mathrm{d}s + \int_0^t h(s) \mathrm{d}W_s, \end{equation}

where we used that $h(0) W_0 = 0$. Matching terms we find that

\begin{equation} h'(s) = e^{a (s - t)} \end{equation}

and thus

\begin{equation} h(s) = \frac{1}{a} e^{a (s - t)}. \end{equation}

Rearranging yields

\begin{eqnarray} \int_0^t e^{a (s - t)} W_s \mathrm{d}s & = & \frac{1}{a} W_t - \frac{1}{a} \int_0^t e^{a (s - t)} \mathrm{d}W_s\\ & = & \frac{1}{a} \int_0^t \left( 1 - e^{a (s - t)} \right) \mathrm{d}W_s. \end{eqnarray}

## Answer by Daneel Olivaw (score 3)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/38734

> "I thought I could use Fubini theorem but I am not quite sure how."

Note that we can write:

$$ \begin{align} \int_0^t e^{a(s-t)}W^1_s\text{d}s & = \int_0^t e^{a(s-t)}\left(\int_0^s\text{d}W^1_u\right)\text{d}s \\[6pt] & = \int_0^t \int_0^se^{a(s-t)}\text{d}W^1_u\text{d}s \end{align}$$

In the Appendix of Heath et al. (1992) you can find a nice statement of the stochastic Fubini theorem, which they themselves take from Ikeda and Watanabe (1981).

Let $s \leq T$ with $T \in \mathbb{R}^+$, we then define the continuous function $\phi(s)=e^{a(s-t)}$ for $s \in [0;T]$ $-$ note that in our case the function only depends on one variable thus for $u \in [0;T]$ we have $\phi(s,u)\triangleq\phi(s)$ which makes things easier. The function $\phi(s)$ is well-defined for any value of $t \in \mathbb{R}$. Therefore:

- The function $\phi(s)$ is deterministic thus mesurable w.r.t. the filtration generated by $W^1$;

- $\phi(s)$ is clearly square-integrable over $[0;T]$;

- For any $\tau \in [0;T]$: $\int_0^T (\int_0^{\tau}\phi(s)\text{d}W^1_u)\text{d}s=\int_0^T \phi(s)(\int_0^{\tau}\text{d}W^1_u)\text{d}s=W_{\tau}^1\int_0^T \phi(s)\text{d}s$ $=cW_{\tau}^1$ for some $c \in \mathbb{R}$, which is continuous in $\tau$ by property of Brownian Motion.

The hypothesis of Lemma 0.1 of Heath et al. are fulfilled (p.98), thus applying Corollary 2 (p.99):

$$\begin{align} \int_0^t e^{a(s-t)}W^1_s\text{d}s & = \int_0^t \int_0^se^{a(s-t)}\text{d}W^1_u\text{d}s \\[6pt] & = \int_0^t \left(\int_u^te^{a(s-t)}\text{d}s\right)\text{d}W^1_u \\[6pt] & = \int_0^t \left(\frac{1-e^{a(u-t)}}{a}\right)\text{d}W^1_u \end{align}$$

@LocalVolatility's comment gives an alternative derivation avoiding Fubini, although I believe the $1/a$ must be outside the parenthesis.

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.