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Convexity Adjustments for Delayed Interest Rate Payments

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Aldo Shumway

Summary

The document explains how to price a floating interest rate payoff when its payment date differs from the end of its accrual period. It frames the price under a payment-date forward measure, then changes to the measure associated with the accrual end date. The resulting expression contains a bond-price ratio, which links the two forward measures and introduces a convexity adjustment.

The accepted answer states that the adjustment applies whether payment occurs before or after the accrual period ends. When payment is later, the bond-price ratio is expressed as the reciprocal of one plus the forward rate over the interval between accrual end and payment. When payment is earlier, the ratio instead corresponds to one plus the forward rate from payment to accrual end. The treatment is an identity under the stated rate and bond conventions; the document does not provide numerical estimation, volatility assumptions, or an implementation example.

Key ideas

  • Changing from the payment-date measure to the accrual-end-date measure introduces a bond-price ratio in the expectation.
  • A convexity adjustment is relevant whether payment falls before or after the interest period ends.
  • For payment after accrual end, the ratio is the reciprocal of one plus the forward rate over the later interval.
  • For payment before accrual end, the ratio takes the form of one plus the forward rate between payment and accrual end.
  • The document gives a symbolic pricing relation without numerical assumptions or calibration guidance.

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# Convexity adjustment when payment if after interest natural term?


# Convexity adjustment when payment if after interest natural term?












I've been working with a convexity adjustment for an interest rate payoff and the next question came to me:

The usual problem that gives rise to the convexity adjustment I'm referring to is as follows:

Consider a series of dates,

\begin{align*} 0 \leq t_0 \leq T_s < T_p < T_e, \end{align*}

Where $T_p$ is the time of payment, $T_s$ is the time when the interest rate is observed and $T_e$ is the time where the interest of the forward rate ends.

If a payment was to ve priced in time $T_p$, one would calculate the expectation over the measure $Q_{T_p}$, as follows:

\begin{align*} P(t_0, T_p)E^{T_p}\big(L(T_s, T_s, T_e) \mid \mathcal{F}_{t_0}\big). \end{align*}

Now changing from the measure $Q_{T_p}$ to the natural measure $Q_{T_e}$ would induce an extra term in the expectation that would lead us to the convexity adjustment:

\begin{align*} &\ P(t_0, T_p)E^{T_p}\big(L(T_s, T_s, T_e) \mid \mathcal{F}_{t_0}\big) \\ =&\ P(t_0, T_p)E^{T_e}\Big(\frac{dQ_{T_p}}{dQ_{t_e}}L(T_s, T_s, T_e) \mid \mathcal{F}_{t_0}\Big)\\ =&\ P(t_0, T_p)E^{T_e}\Big(\frac{P(t_0, T_e)}{P(t_0, T_p)P(T_p, T_e)} L(T_s, T_s, T_e)\mid \mathcal{F}_{t_0}\Big)\\ =&\ P(t_0, T_e)E^{T_e}\Big(\frac{1}{P(T_p, T_e)} L(T_s, T_s, T_e)\mid \mathcal{F}_{t_0}\Big)\\ =&\ P(t_0, T_e)E^{T_e}\Big(\big(1+ \Delta_p^e L(T_p, T_p, T_e) \big) L(T_s, T_s, T_e)\mid \mathcal{F}_{t_0}\Big)\\ =&\ P(t_0, T_e)E^{T_e}\Big(\big(1+ \Delta_p^e L(T_s, T_p, T_e) \big) L(T_s, T_s, T_e)\mid \mathcal{F}_{t_0}\Big) \end{align*}

Now, what if the date sequence was like this:

\begin{align*} 0 \leq t_0 \leq T_s < T_e < T_p, \end{align*}

With the payment made in $T_p$ after the interest rate term ends. Would a change of measure and an adjustment be needed to price the payoff? I'd think that if that's the case it would be something like this:

\begin{align*} &\ P(t_0, T_p)E^{T_p}\big(L(T_s, T_s, T_e) \mid \mathcal{F}_{t_0}\big) \\ =&\ P(t_0, T_e)E^{T_e}\Big(P(T_e, T_p) L(T_s, T_s, T_e)\mid \mathcal{F}_{t_0}\Big)\\ =&\ P(t_0, T_e)E^{T_e}\Big(\frac{1}{1+ \Delta_e^p L(T_e, T_e, T_p)} L(T_s, T_s, T_e)\mid \mathcal{F}_{t_0}\Big)\\ \end{align*}

But I don't see how a change of measure with the same logic as the former case would induce this term. On the other hand, it might be possible that since the payment is done after $T_e$ it doesn't make much sense to make the adjustment since the interest period is over (in theory) and one would price the payoff up to $T_e$ and maybe discount it from $T_p$.

I hope I made myself clear,

Much help appreciated

## Answer by Antoine Conze (score 0, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/37635

A convexity adjustment arises regardless of $T_p$ being before or after $T_e$: $$ E^{T_p}\left[L(T_s, T_s, T_e) \right] = E^{T_e}\left[\frac{dQ^{T_p}}{dQ^{T_e}}L(T_s, T_s, T_e) \right] = E^{T_e}\left[\frac{P(t_0, T_e) P(T_s,T_p)}{P(t_0, T_p)P(T_s,T_e)}L(T_s, T_s, T_e) \right] $$ If $T_p < T_e$ then $\frac{P(T_s,T_p)}{P(T_s,T_e)} = 1 + \Delta_p^e L(T_s, T_p, T_e)$ and you get your original formula.

If $T_p > T_e$ then $\frac{P(T_s,T_p)}{P(T_s,T_e)} = \frac{1}{1 + \Delta_e^p L(T_s, T_e, T_p)}$ and you get the formula you were looking for.

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This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.