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CRRA Utility: How Risk Aversion Changes with Gamma and Wealth

Article Quant Q&A · Author: YoYO Man

Summary

The document explains how the parameter gamma in constant relative risk aversion utility relates to both relative and absolute risk aversion. For a concave utility function, an investor is risk-averse; relative risk aversion measures the willingness to pay as a fraction of wealth to avoid a proportional gamble, while absolute risk aversion measures the amount paid to avoid a fixed-size gamble. Under CRRA utility, relative risk aversion equals gamma, so increasing gamma raises aversion to proportional risk.

Absolute risk aversion is relative risk aversion divided by wealth. Thus, at a fixed wealth level, a larger gamma also raises absolute risk aversion, while greater wealth lowers the absolute amount an investor would pay to avoid a fixed-size gamble. The discussion notes that zero gamma corresponds to linear, risk-neutral utility and that the limiting case at gamma equal to one is logarithmic utility. These distinctions resolve the apparent conflict between interpreting the utility curve and comparing risk measures; the answer gives definitions and relationships, but no empirical evidence or investment prescription.

Key ideas

  • CRRA utility has constant relative risk aversion equal to gamma.
  • Increasing gamma raises the fraction of wealth an investor would pay to avoid proportional risk.
  • Absolute risk aversion equals relative risk aversion divided by wealth.
  • At a fixed gamma, absolute risk aversion falls as wealth rises.
  • Zero gamma represents risk neutrality, while the limiting case at one is logarithmic utility.

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Full text
# CRRA Ultility, simple question


# CRRA Ultility, simple question












for CRRA, does increasing gamma leads to increase in risk-aversion?

Looking at the curve, I think increasing gamma leads to less in risk-aversion (since the risk preimum is less). But in terms of absolute risk aversion, CRRA = $\gamma /X$. Looks like increasing $\gamma $ leads to high risk-aversion. Which is right?

## Answer by RRL (score 2, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/54187

If the utility function $W \mapsto U(W)$ (where $W$ is wealth) is concave, then the individual is risk-averse and unwilling to accept any actuariually fair gamble.

We can distinguish between absolute risk aversion ($ARA$) and relative risk aversion ($RRA$)

$$ARA(W) = - \frac{U''(W)}{U'(W)},\quad RRA(W) = - W\frac{U''(W)}{U'(W)}$$

Here, $ARA(W)$ determines the absolute amount the individual is willing to pay to avoid a gamble of a given absolute size. Similarly, $RRA(W)$ determines the relative amount, i.e., fraction of wealth, the individual is willing to pay to avoid a gamble of a given size relative to wealth. A derivation for $ARA$ is given here and is easily modified for $RRA$ by replacing $\epsilon$ and $\delta$ with $\epsilon/W$ and $\delta/W$, respectively.

As you would expect, a $CRRA$ utility function has constant relative risk aversion $\gamma$,

$$RRA(W) = -W \frac{U''(W)}{U'(W)} = - W \frac{d}{dW} \log U'(W) = \gamma$$

Without loss of generality in terms of constants, we can solve for $U$ as

$$U(W) = \frac{W^{1-\gamma}-1}{1-\gamma}$$

To ensure concavity (risk aversion) we must have $\gamma > 0$. The case where $\gamma = 0$ corresponds to a linear utility function (risk neutrality) and in the limit as $\gamma \to 1$ we have , by L'Hopital's rule,

$$\lim_{\gamma \to 1}U(W) = \log W$$

With $\gamma$ fixed the fraction of wealth the individual pays to avoid a gamble is, of course, independent of wealth since this is $CRRA$. Nevertheless the fraction of wealth paid would increase as $\gamma$ increases.

However, since $ARA(W) = RRA(W)/W$, the absolute amount paid decreases with increasing wealth.

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.