Deriving a Stock Forward Price from No-Arbitrage
Summary
The document derives the theoretical forward delivery price of a non-dividend-paying stock by matching two portfolios with the same terminal payoff. One portfolio holds a forward contract; the other holds a financed position in the stock. Equating their values today under the no-arbitrage principle yields the standard relation between spot price, interest rate, dividend yield, and maturity.
For the stated example, the stock price is 400, the annual rate is 8% compounded quarterly, and maturity is nine months. The responses confirm quarterly compounding over three periods, giving 424.48. Some other replies use continuous compounding or misread the quoted rate as a quarterly rate, producing different values. The derivation assumes the stated financing and dividend conventions and ignores practical frictions such as transaction costs, taxes, and funding differences.
Key ideas
- A forward price can be derived by replicating its terminal payoff with the underlying asset and borrowing or lending.
- Under continuous compounding, the theoretical price depends on spot, financing rate, dividend yield, and time to maturity.
- With quarterly compounding, an annual rate of 8% applies over three quarters for a nine-month contract.
- The example assumes no dividends and idealized no-arbitrage conditions.
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Full text
# Calculate theoretical forward price of a stock
# Calculate theoretical forward price of a stock
The current price of a stock is USD400 per share and it pays no dividends. Assuming a constant interest rate of $8% $ compounded quarterly, what is the stock's theoretical forward price for delivery in $9$ months ?
I am taking the Financial Engineering and risk management course on Coursera. The above question was in the quiz and I got a wrong answer on it.
Shouldn't the answer be: $$400\times\left(1+\frac{0.08}{4}\right)^3 = 424.48\, ?$$
## Answer by wsw (score 4)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/22375
Let's use a no-arbitrage argument. Assume that the (continuously compounding) dividend yield is $q$ while the interest rate is $r$.
For portfolio 1, we go long 1 forward contract with maturity $T$ and delivery price $K$. The payoff at time $T$ is $S_T - K$.
For portfolio 2, we go long $e^{-qT}$ unit of a stock (while reinvest all dividends) and short $K e^{-rT}$ unit of a bond. The payoff at time $T$ is also $S_T - K$.
At time $t = 0$, the present value (PV) of portfolio 1 is 0, because we just entered the trade. The PV of portfolio 2 at time $t = 0$ is $S_0 e^{-qT} - K e^{-rT}$. Assuming that there is no arbitrage, we conclude that the PV at time $t = 0$ of portfolios 1 and 2 must be the same: $ S_0 e^{-qT} - K e^{-rT} = 0$. Hence $\boxed{K = S_0 e^{(r-q)T}}$. Your answer of $400 (1+0.08/4)^3=424.48$ is correct.
## Answer by Piyush Shandilya (score 0)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/22214
It should be just $400*(1+0.02)^3$ Where $0.02$ is quarterly compounded rate for a quarter, and $n$ is 3 quarters, hence the exponent 3
## Answer by LorenzQF (score 0)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/24302
It is correct. J.Hull's book explains it clearly in Chapter 3, paragraph 3.5 "Forward price for an investment asset". It is also shows the arbitrage strategy if the price does not match.
## Answer by PK K (score 0)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/51608
Based on No Arbitrage equation for Forward Asset combination: $S_0 e^{−qT} − K e^{−rT} = 0$
i.e. $K = S_0 e^{(r-q)T} \\ = 400 * e^{(0.02 - 0) * 3} \\ = 400 * 1.061837 \\ = 424.7346$
## Answer by sparkle (score -1)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/22191
Assuming 8% is the quartely interest rate
I think it's: $400*(1+0.08)^3 = 503.8$
$0.08$ is the quarter interest rate and you compound for 3 quarters
Or
$ r_{year} = (1+0.08)^4 - 1 = 0.36 $
$400*(1+0.36)^(9/12) = 503.8$
Because there are 9 months in a 12-month year.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.