Deriving Black–Scholes Equations for Merton Debt and Equity
Summary
The document derives why debt and equity values in the Merton framework satisfy the Black–Scholes partial differential equation. It applies Itô’s lemma to each claim, then forms a self-financing portfolio of debt and equity whose exposure to the firm’s asset-value shock is canceled. The locally risk-free portfolio must earn the risk-free rate, which constrains the claims’ drift terms.
Using the identity that firm assets equal debt plus equity, the derivation relates their time and asset-value derivatives and shows that equity satisfies the equation. Since the asset value itself satisfies the same equation, debt does as well. The argument illustrates risk-neutral pricing through replication rather than assuming the equation for each claim. It relies on differentiable claim values and tradable debt and equity, along with the model’s other assumptions; it does not address cases where the hedge cannot be formed or those assumptions fail.
Key ideas
- Itô’s lemma gives the dynamics of debt and equity as functions of firm asset value.
- A portfolio can eliminate asset-value risk by balancing the claims’ sensitivities.
- A locally risk-free self-financing portfolio must earn the risk-free rate.
- The identity that assets equal debt plus equity transfers the pricing equation between the claims.
Tags
Full text
# Merton model riskless self-financing derivation
# Merton model riskless self-financing derivation
Suppose $dA_t = A_t[\mu dt+\sigma dW_t]$ (assets' value) under the physical measure, plus the other assumptions of the Merton model.
Suppose further that debt and equity are tradeable assets that satisfy $A_t = D_t+E_t$ and follow processes $D_t = D(t,A_t)$, $E_t = E(t,A_t)$ for differentiable functions.
By considering a locally risk-free self-financing portfolio of bonds and equity(which by necessity will earn the risk-free rate of return), prove directly that both $D$, $E$ satisfy the Black-Scholes equation: $$\partial_t f+\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2 A^2 \partial_A^2 f+r A \partial_A f-r f = 0$$
## Answer by Gordon (score 4)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/26298
We construct a locally risk-free self-financing portfolio $X_t$, at time $t$, with $\Delta_t^1$ share of debt and $\Delta_t^2$ share of equity. That is, \begin{align*} X_t = \Delta_t^1 D_t + \Delta_t^2 E_t. \end{align*} Then, \begin{align*} dX_t &=\Delta_t^1 dD_t + \Delta_t^2 dE_t\\ &=\Delta_t^1\bigg[\Big(\frac{\partial D_t}{\partial t} + \mu A_t\frac{\partial D_t}{\partial A_t} + \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 A_t^2 \frac{\partial^2 D_t }{\partial A_t^2}\Big)dt + \sigma A_t \frac{\partial D_t}{\partial A_t} dW_t \bigg]\\ &\quad + \Delta_t^2\bigg[\Big(\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial t} + \mu A_t \frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t} + \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 A_t^2 \frac{\partial^2 E_t }{\partial A_t^2}\Big)dt + \sigma A_t \frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t} dW_t \bigg]. \end{align*} Since $X_t$ is locally risk-free, \begin{align*} \Delta_t^1\frac{\partial D_t}{\partial A_t} + \Delta_t^2\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}=0. \tag{1} \end{align*} Moreover, since $X_t$ earn the risk-free rate $r$, \begin{align*} dX_t = rX_t dt. \end{align*} From $(1)$, \begin{align*} r\Delta_t^1 D_t dt + r\Delta_t^2 E_t dt &= \Delta_t^1\Big(\frac{\partial D_t}{\partial t} + \mu A_t \frac{\partial D_t}{\partial A_t} + \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 A_t^2 \frac{\partial^2 D_t }{\partial A_t^2}\Big)dt \\ &\quad + \Delta_t^2\Big(\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial t} + \mu A_t \frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t} + \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 A_t^2 \frac{\partial^2 E_t }{\partial A_t^2}\Big)dt. \end{align*} That is, \begin{align*} &\Delta_t^1\Big(\frac{\partial D_t}{\partial t} + \mu A_t \frac{\partial D_t}{\partial A_t}+\frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 A_t^2 \frac{\partial^2 D_t }{\partial A_t^2} - rD_t \Big)dt \\ &+ \Delta_t^2\Big(\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial t} +\mu A_t \frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}+ \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 A_t^2 \frac{\partial^2 E_t }{\partial A_t^2}-rE_t\Big)dt =0. \tag{2} \end{align*} Since $A_t = E_t + D_t$, \begin{align*} \frac{\partial D_t}{\partial t} &= -\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial t},\tag{3}\\ \frac{\partial D_t}{\partial A_t} &= 1- \frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t},\tag{4}\\ \frac{\partial^2 D_t }{\partial A_t^2} &= - \frac{\partial^2 E_t }{\partial A_t^2}.\tag{5} \end{align*} From $(1)$ and $(2)$, \begin{align*} &-\Delta_t^2\frac{\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}}{\frac{\partial D_t}{\partial A_t}}\Big(\frac{\partial D_t}{\partial t} + \mu A_t \frac{\partial D_t}{\partial A_t}+\frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 A_t^2 \frac{\partial^2 D_t }{\partial A_t^2} - rD_t \Big) \\ & \quad + \Delta_t^2\Big(\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial t} +\mu A_t \frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}+ \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 A_t^2 \frac{\partial^2 E_t }{\partial A_t^2}-rE_t\Big) =0. \end{align*} Then, from $(3)$-$(5)$, and multiplying $\frac{\partial D_t}{\partial A_t}=1-\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}$ on both sides, \begin{align*} &-\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}\bigg[-\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial t} + \mu A_t \Big(1-\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}\Big)-\frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 A_t^2 \frac{\partial^2 E_t }{\partial A_t^2} - r(A_t-E_t) \bigg] \\ & \quad + \Big(1- \frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}\Big)\Big(\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial t} +\mu A_t \frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}+ \sigma^2 \frac{1}{2} A_t^2 \frac{\partial^2 E_t }{\partial A_t^2}-rE_t\Big) \\ =&\ \frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial t} - \mu A_t \frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t} + \mu A_t \left(\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}\right)^2 + \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 A_t^2\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}\frac{\partial^2 E_t }{\partial A_t^2} +r(A_t-E_t)\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t} \\ &\quad - \frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial t} -\mu A_t \left(\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}\right)^2 - \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 A_t^2\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}\frac{\partial^2 E_t }{\partial A_t^2}+rE_t\frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t} \\ &\quad + \frac{\partial E_t}{\partial t} +\mu A_t \frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}+ \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 A_t^2 \frac{\partial^2 E_t }{\partial A_t^2}-rE_t \\ =& \ \frac{\partial E_t}{\partial t} +r A_t \frac{\partial E_t}{\partial A_t}+ \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 A_t^2 \frac{\partial^2 E_t }{\partial A_t^2}-rE_t =0.\tag{6} \end{align*} Since $A_t$ also satisfies $(6)$, then so does $D_t$. The derivation is this complete.
## Answer by user20840 (score 0)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/26181
You need the derivation of BS eq.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black%E2%80%93Scholes_equation#Derivation
where in your setup you need S = V and case 1: V = E, case 2: V = D.
## Answer by Jeppe Andersen (score 0)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/26285
- Use Ito's lemma to get dD
- Use dE = dV - dD
- Form a weighted portfolio of D and E, lets call it V, where the weights sum to 1
- Use the self-financing to get the dynamics of V
- Find the weights that makes V risk-free
- Set the drift of V equal to rShown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.