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Deriving Hamada's Formula for Levered and Unlevered Beta

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Gus Montano

Summary

The document presents a derivation of Hamada's formula, which relates a firm's levered equity beta to its unlevered beta, debt-to-equity ratio, and tax rate. It starts from beta as covariance with market returns divided by market variance, then expresses equity returns in terms of operating earnings and other cash flow components. Under simplifying assumptions, the market sensitivities of capital expenditure, depreciation, borrowing, and interest are treated as zero, leaving the operating earnings component to drive both beta measures.

The derivation equates the risk-weighted operating cash flows and uses a tax shield valuation to relate levered and unlevered equity values. This yields the familiar adjustment in which leverage increases equity beta, with the tax rate reducing the effective debt contribution. The argument depends on strong assumptions about component betas, debt, taxes, and the tax shield; it is not a universal identity for every firm or capital structure. A second response points to Modigliani–Miller theory as the underlying framework but does not add a derivation.

Key ideas

  • Beta measures an asset's covariance with the market relative to market variance.
  • The derivation assumes that several non-operating cash flow components have zero market sensitivity.
  • A perpetual interest tax shield is valued to relate levered and unlevered equity values.
  • The formula adjusts levered beta using debt, equity, and the tax rate under simplifying capital structure assumptions.

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Full text
# Proof of Hamada's Formula (Relationship between levered and unlevered beta)


# Proof of Hamada's Formula (Relationship between levered and unlevered beta)












Hamada's formula is presented as follows:

$$\beta_{U}=\left[\frac{1}{1+\frac{D}{E}(1-\tau)}\right]\beta_{L},$$

where $\beta_{U}$ and $\beta_{L}$ are the unlevered and levered betas of a firm respectively. $D$ is the market value of debt. $E$ is the market value of equity and $\tau$ is the tax rate.

May anyone please provide a proof for this formula? I have found some sources on the internet, though they are not convincing.

Thanks to all in advanced.

## Answer by Gus Montano (score 9, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/17252

Proof: Recall that

$$\beta_{i} = \frac{\mathrm{Cov}(r_{i},r_{m})}{\mathrm{Var}(r_{m})}.$$

Now, the returns on unlevered and levered equity are given by

$$r_{U} = \frac{\mathrm{EBIT}(1-\tau) - \mathrm{CAPEX} + \mathrm{Depreciation}}{E_{U}}$$ $$r_{L} = \frac{\mathrm{EBIT}(1-\tau) - \mathrm{CAPEX} + \mathrm{Depreciation} + \mathrm{Net\ Debt} - \mathrm{Interest}}{E_{L}},$$

respectively.

Therefore,

$$\beta_{U} = \frac{\mathrm{Cov}\left(\frac{\mathrm{EBIT}(1-\tau) - \mathrm{CAPEX} + \mathrm{Depreciation}}{E_{U}},r_{m}\right)}{\mathrm{Var}(r_{m})}$$ $$\beta_{L} = \frac{\mathrm{Cov}\left(\frac{\mathrm{EBIT}(1-\tau) - \mathrm{CAPEX} + \mathrm{Depreciation + \mathrm{Net\ Debt} - \mathrm{Interest}}}{E_{L}},r_{m}\right)}{\mathrm{Var}(r_{m})}.$$

Working with the $\beta_{U}$ equation,

$$ \begin{align} \beta_{U} &= \frac{\mathrm{Cov}\left(\frac{\mathrm{EBIT}(1-\tau) - \mathrm{CAPEX} + \mathrm{Depreciation}}{E_{U}},r_{m}\right)}{\mathrm{Var}(r_{m})} \\ &= \frac{\mathrm{Cov}\left(\frac{\mathrm{EBIT}(1-\tau)}{E_{U}} - \frac{\mathrm{CAPEX}}{E_{U}} + \frac{\mathrm{Depreciation}}{E_{U}},r_{m}\right)}{\mathrm{Var}(r_{m})} \\ &= \frac{\mathrm{Cov}\left(\frac{\mathrm{EBIT}(1-\tau)}{E_{U}}, r_{m}\right) + \mathrm{Cov}\left(\frac{-\mathrm{CAPEX}}{E_{U}}, r_{m}\right) + \mathrm{Cov}\left(\frac{\mathrm{Depreciation}}{E_{U}},r_{m}\right)}{\mathrm{Var}(r_{m})} \\ &= \frac{\mathrm{Cov}\left(\frac{\mathrm{EBIT}(1-\tau)}{E_{U}}, r_{m}\right)}{\mathrm{Var}(r_{m})} + \frac{\mathrm{Cov}\left(\frac{-\mathrm{CAPEX}}{E_{U}}, r_{m}\right)}{\mathrm{Var}(r_{m})} + \frac{\mathrm{Cov}\left(\frac{\mathrm{Depreciation}}{E_{U}},r_{m}\right)}{\mathrm{Var}(r_{m})}.\\ \end{align} $$

Since $E_{U}$ is the value of unlevered equity from the last financial year, it is constant. Hence,

$$ \begin{align} \beta_{U} &= \frac{\mathrm{Cov}\left(\frac{\mathrm{EBIT}(1-\tau)}{E_{U}}, r_{m}\right)}{\mathrm{Var}(r_{m})} + \frac{\mathrm{Cov}\left(\frac{-\mathrm{CAPEX}}{E_{U}}, r_{m}\right)}{\mathrm{Var}(r_{m})} + \frac{\mathrm{Cov}\left(\frac{\mathrm{Depreciation}}{E_{U}},r_{m}\right)}{\mathrm{Var}(r_{m})} \\ &= \frac{1}{E_{U}} \left[ \frac{\mathrm{Cov}\left(\mathrm{EBIT}(1-\tau), r_{m}\right)}{\mathrm{Var}(r_{m})} - \frac{\mathrm{Cov}\left(\mathrm{CAPEX}, r_{m}\right)}{\mathrm{Var}(r_{m})} + \frac{\mathrm{Cov}\left(\mathrm{Depreciation}, r_{m}\right)}{{\mathrm{Var}(r_{m})}} \right] \\ &= \frac{1}{E_{U}} \left[\beta_{\mathrm{EBIT}(1-\tau)} - \beta_{\mathrm{CAPEX}} + \beta_{\mathrm{Depreciation}}\right]. \end{align} $$

We next assume that that the correlation between the market, CAPEX, depreciation, net debt and interest is $0$. That is, we assume that $\beta_{\mathrm{CAPEX}} = \beta_{\mathrm{Depreciation}} = \beta_{\mathrm{Net\ Borrowing}} = \beta_{\mathrm{Interest}} = 0.$ Thus the equation for unlevered, and by similar computation, levered beta are given by the following formulas:

$$ \begin{align} \beta_{U} &= \frac{1}{E_{U}} \left[\beta_{\mathrm{EBIT}(1-\tau)}\right] \implies E_{U}\beta_{U} = \left[\beta_{\mathrm{EBIT}(1-\tau)}\right] \\ \beta_{L} &= \frac{1}{E_{L}} \left[\beta_{\mathrm{EBIT}(1-\tau)}\right] \implies E_{L}\beta_{L} = \left[\beta_{\mathrm{EBIT}(1-\tau)}\right] \\ \end{align} $$

Equating the equations yields

$$ \begin{align} E_{U}\beta_{U} &= E_{L}\beta_{L} \\ \implies \beta_{U} &= \frac{E_{L}}{E_{U}} \beta_{L}.\\ \end{align} $$

Now, for an unlevered firm it is known that:

$$ A_{U} = L_{U} + E_{U} \implies E_{U} = A_{U} - L_{U}. $$

Say that the assets and liabilities of this firm are fixed with the exception of new debt capital issued. That is, the firm is levered and therefore, $$ \begin{align} E_{L} &= \left(A_{U} + \mathrm{Tax\ Shield}\right) - \left(L_{U} + D\right) \\ &= \left(A_{U} - L_{U}\right) - D + \mathrm{Tax\ Shield} \\ \implies E_{L} &= E_{U} - D + \mathrm{Tax\ Shield}.\\ \end{align} $$

Thus we are left to calculate the tax shield. Assume that the pre tax cost of debt is $k_{d}$. Therefore,

$$ \begin{align} \mathrm{Tax\ Shield} &= \sum_{i = 1}^{\infty} \frac{k_{d}D\tau}{(1+k_{d})^{i}} \\ &= k_{d}D\tau \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(1+k_{d})^{i}} \\ &= k_{d}D\tau \cdot \frac{1}{k_{d}} \\ \implies \mathrm{Tax\ Shield} &= D\tau.\\ \end{align} $$

Therefore

$$ \begin{align} E_{L} &= E_{U} - D + D\tau \\ \implies E_{L} &= E_{U} - D(1-\tau) \\ \implies E_{U} &= E_{L} + D(1-\tau).\\ \end{align} $$

Recalling that $\beta_{U} = \frac{E_{L}}{E_{U}} \beta_{L}$ and substituting our newly created equation for $E_{U}$ yields

$$ \begin{align} \beta_{U} &= \frac{E_{L}}{E_{U}} \beta_{L} \\ &= \frac{E_{L}}{E_{L} + D(1-\tau)}\beta_{L} \\ \implies \beta_{U} &= \left[\frac{1}{1 + \frac{D}{E}(1-\tau)}\right]\beta_{L}, \\ \end{align} $$

as required. Thanks.

## Answer by romango (score 1)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/33629

This formula is a direct result of the Modigliani-Miller theorem. After some searching I found a fairly simple proof of this here:

https://quantcoyote.com/2017/04/09/modigliani-miller-unlevered-betas/

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.