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Deriving Risk-Neutral Probabilities from State Prices

Article Quant Q&A · Author: MikeHeimlich

Summary

The document explains how to normalize Arrow–Debreu state prices to obtain risk-neutral probabilities in a finite-state market. For each state, divide its state price by the sum of state prices. The resulting weights are positive and sum to one, so they can be interpreted as probabilities under the risk-neutral measure. The denominator is the price of a payoff that delivers one unit in every state, linking the normalization to the risk-free asset price.

For a security with a specified payoff in each state, its value is the sum of each payoff multiplied by its state price. Replacing state prices with the normalized probabilities and the risk-free asset price expresses valuation as the risk-free price times the probability-weighted expected payoff. This gives the risk-neutral valuation relationship directly. The explanation assumes a finite set of states with positive state prices and does not discuss how state prices are inferred from market assets, discount-factor conventions, or incomplete markets.

Key ideas

  • Normalize each positive state price by the sum of all state prices to obtain risk-neutral probabilities.
  • The sum of state prices is the price of a payoff that pays one unit in every state.
  • A security’s price is the sum of its state-contingent payoffs weighted by state prices.
  • The normalized probabilities express valuation as a risk-free discounting factor times expected payoff.

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Full text
# Deriving the risk neutral probability with the arrow debreu Price vector


# Deriving the risk neutral probability with the arrow debreu Price vector












today I had an oral exam about Stochastic Finance. With one of the questions I was pretty helpless. We were talking option pricing in a scenario where we have Portfolio with n-assets and k-states. But then he asked me:

How do you derive the risk neutral probability by using the arrow debreu price vector?

Maybe I'm just lost in the terminology, but any help is appreciated!

## Answer by Magic is in the chain (score 5, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/45381

I will try to give a simple explanation. So please add a comment if you have any specific questions.

Let's assume there are k states, and let $p_s$ be the price of a state s. So p is the state price vector $ p=\left(p_1, p_2, \dots, p_k\right)$. Let

$ \pi_s =\frac{p_s}{\sum_{i=1}^k{p_i}}$

Then $ \pi_s $ as defined above can be interpreted as probabilities (they sum to one, are positive etc), and state space as probability space. Additionally, the denominator is the sum of the price of all k securities, so it is the price of an asset that pays 1 in every state, and therefore we can interpret it as the price of a risk free asset, $R_f$. Hence we can write the above equation as follows:

$ \pi_s =\frac{p_s}{R_f}$

Now, let's say we have a security bundle with payoff $x=\left( x_1, x_2, \dots, x_k\right)$ in the k-states. So its price can be written as follows:

$Price(x)=\sum_{i=1}^k{x_i p_i}$

Which we can easily re-write in terms of the probabilities above ($p_i=\pi_i*R_f$):

$Price(x)=\sum_{i=1}^k{x_i \, \pi_i \, R_f}=R_f \sum_{i=1}^k{x_i \, \pi_i}$

Now, the probability weighted payoff is exactly how one writes expectation, so this becomes:

$Price(x)=R_f E \left[ x\right] $

Which is just the risk neutral valuation formula. You can see from the above that risk neutral probabilities are just forward state prices.

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.