Deriving the ATM Caplet Black Formula Under the Forward Measure
Summary
The answer explains why the at-the-money caplet formula contains the forward rate for the accrual period. It assumes that this rate follows a lognormal process under the forward measure associated with the bond maturing at delivery. Discounting the expected caplet payoff with that bond as numeraire gives Black’s caplet formula, with term volatility defined by the integrated variance over the option’s life.
At the money, setting the strike equal to the current forward rate simplifies the normal-distribution terms to a single factor involving the cumulative normal distribution. Multiplying that factor by the delivery-date discount bond, accrual period, and forward rate yields the quoted market expression. The explanation depends on the lognormal forward-rate assumption and uses deterministic volatility; it does not establish that this model describes observed rate dynamics or settle the question for other interest-rate models.
Key ideas
- The caplet payoff is valued under the forward measure associated with its delivery date.
- Under a lognormal forward-rate assumption, the caplet price follows the Black formula.
- The forward rate appears because the payoff depends on the future accrual rate and scales the at-the-money value.
- Setting the strike equal to the current forward rate simplifies the formula to the market ATM expression.
- The derivation relies on a lognormal rate model with deterministic volatility.
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Full text
# Caplet volatility formula
# Caplet volatility formula
Consider an ATM caplet with maturity $T$ and delivery $T+\tau$. In the book Interest Rate Models (Brigo and Mercurio), page 81, the authors define the model caplet volatility as the unique value of $\sigma$ such that the formula $$P(0,T+\tau)\cdot \tau f_\tau(T;0)\left(2\Phi \left( \frac{\sqrt{T}\sigma}2\right)-1\right) = (P(0,T) - P(0,T+\tau))\left(2\Phi \left( \frac{\sqrt{T}\sigma}2\right)-1\right) $$ is equal to the caplet price produced by the model in question. Here $f_\tau(T;t)$ is defined (page 12, (1.20)) by
$$ f_\tau(T;t) = \frac{1}{\tau} \left( \frac{P(t,T)}{P(t,T+\tau)} -1 \right).$$
Then, they say
> The left-hand side is the market Black's formula for a $T$-expiry $(T+\tau)$-maturity at-the-money caplet.
So my question is, where is this expression coming from in the author's book? Why is the forward rate $f_\tau(T;0)$ showing up?
Note: the error was using the incorrect model, but I leave the computation here (for log-normal bond prices, not forward rates). If we consider the martingale $F_t = \frac{P(t,T+\tau)}{P(t,T)}$ in the $T$-forward measure, and notice that $1+\tau f_\tau(T;t) = F_t^{-1}$ then it is clear that an ATM caplet gives an ATM bond put, and the formula for the bond put is $$ P(t) = P(t,T) (K \Phi(-z_-) - F_t \Phi(-z_+)) $$ where $z_{\pm} = \dfrac z \sigma - \dfrac \sigma 2$ and $z = \log \frac{F_t}K$ is the log-moneyness. When the option is at the money, $z=0$, $K = F_t$ and $F_t P(t,T) = P(t, T+\tau)$, so $$ P_{\mathsf{ATM}}(0) = P(0,T+\tau) \left(2\Phi \left(\frac\sigma 2\right) - 1\right) $$ and multiplying by $F_0^{-1}$ gives the pre-factor $P(0,T)$ instead for the caplet.
## Answer by Pedro (score 0, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/81293
To clear any doubt, I will write down the calculation here.
To be concrete, we let $f(t) = f_\tau(T;t)$ for some interval $[T,T+\tau]$, we assume that under the $T+\tau$ forward measure we have that $df(t) = \sigma(t) f(t) dW(t)$ where $\sigma(t)$ is some deterministic function of $t$. Thus, our numeraire is the process $P(t,T+\tau)$.
> Under the Black model, the price of a $T$ maturity $T+\tau$ delivery caplet with strike $K$ is given by the Black formula $$ \mathsf{BlackCaplet}_\tau(T,K;t) = P(t,T+\tau) \tau \left( f(t) \Phi\left( z_+ \right) - K \Phi\left( z_{-}\right) \right). $$ where $z_\pm = \frac{z}{\sigma} \pm \frac{\sigma}{2}$, $z = \log \frac{f(t)}K$ is the log-moneyness and $\sigma^2 = \int_t^T \sigma(s)^2 ds$ is the term volatility.
Proof. Using Ito's formula we see that $$d \log f(t) = \sigma dW(t) - \frac 12 \sigma^2 dt$$ so that $$ \log f(T) = \log f(t) + \int_t^T \sigma(s)dW(s) - \frac 12 \int_t^T \sigma(s)^2 ds.$$ The payoff of a $T$-maturity caplet with strike $K$ at time $T$ is $\tau (f(T) - K)^+$, so we know that the fair price of a caplet at time $t$ is $$ \mathsf{BlackCaplet}_\tau(T,K;t) = \tau P(t,T+\tau) \mathbb{E}((f(T)-K)^+ \mid \mathcal F_t) $$ where the expected value is taken under the $T+\tau$ forward measure. Since, conditional on $\mathcal F_t$, $\log f(T)$ is normal, we see that we want to compute $$ \mathbb{E}((X-K)^+) \text{ where }\log X \sim N(\mu, \sigma^2) $$ where $\mu = \log f(t) - \frac 12 \int_t^T \sigma(s)^2 ds$ and $\sigma^2 = \int_0^T \sigma(t)^2 dt$. A routine calculation shows that in this case $$ \mathbb E((X-K)^+) = f(t) \Phi\left( z_+ \right) - K \Phi\left( z_{-}\right) . $$ where $z_\pm = \frac{z}{\sigma} \pm \frac{\sigma}{2}$ and $z = \log \frac{f(t)}K$ is the log-moneyness. This gives the formula.
When the caplet is at the money, we get
$$ \mathsf{BlackCapletATM}_\tau(T;t) = P(t,T+\tau) f_\tau(T;t) \tau \left( 2\Phi\left(\frac\sigma 2\right) -1 \right) $$
which is the formula in the book.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.