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Deriving the Black–Scholes PDE from Risk-Neutral Valuation

Article Quant Q&A · Author: George

Summary

The document outlines how risk-neutral valuation can lead to a partial differential equation for the value of a self-financing portfolio whose price depends on time and an underlying asset. It sets up a market with a money-market account and a risky asset, then uses the money-market account as numeraire. Under the risk-neutral measure, the discounted asset price is a martingale, and the discounted portfolio value is represented as a conditional expectation of its terminal payoff.

Applying Itô’s formula to that value process exposes its drift and diffusion terms. The martingale condition makes the drift vanish, yielding the familiar Black–Scholes PDE with the risk-free rate and volatility in its coefficients. The derivation is presented for a smooth Markovian value function in the stated model. It assumes suitable regularity and risk-neutral dynamics; the answer’s displayed reasoning also compresses the step from an expectation of an integrated drift to a pointwise PDE condition.

Key ideas

  • Risk-neutral valuation expresses discounted portfolio value as a conditional expectation of its terminal value.
  • The money-market account serves as the numeraire in the derivation.
  • Applying Itô’s formula separates the value process into drift and diffusion components.
  • The martingale condition implies that the pricing function’s drift must vanish.
  • The resulting equation is the Black–Scholes PDE under the stated model assumptions.

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# Answer by Kurt G. (score 2, accepted)


# Using the risk neutral version of the First Fundamental Theorem of Asset Pricing to derive a partial differential equation












I have to use the risk neutral version of the First Fundamental Theorem of Asset Pricing to derive a partial differential equation (PDE) that the price/value process, $V_t = F(t,S_t)$, of a self-financing Markovian portfolio has to satisfy.

Some context:

Let $W$ be a standard Browian motion. We are in a financial market consisting of a risky asset $S$ and a money-market account $B$ with:

$$dS_t = a(b - S_t)dt + \sigma S_tdW_t$$ $$dB_t = rB_tdt$$

where, $$B_0 = 1,\; S_0 = s_0, \;\sigma > 0 \; \text{and}\; a,b \; \text{are constants unequal to zero.}$$

Normally, we don't have to use the FFT and we use these two equations: $$V_t = \phi_tS_t + \psi_tB_t$$ $$dV_t = \phi_tdS_t + \psi_tdB_t $$

I know that the FFTAP tells us that under regularity conditions absence of arbitrage holds if and only if, for some numeraire $N$, there exists a probability measure $\mathbb{Q} = \mathbb{Q}_N$ such that:

- $\mathbb{Q} \sim \mathbb{P}$

- For any asset $A$ in the market, the discounted price process $A/N$ is a $\mathbb{Q}$-martingale, i.e. $$\frac{A_t}{N_t} = \mathbb{E_Q}\left[ \frac{A_T}{N_T} | \mathcal{F}_t \right]$$

Could someone help me get started, since I have no idea how to start. If I need to provide extra information let me know and I will try to do so.

## Answer by Kurt G. (score 2, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/69087

In the answer to a related question of yours it was shown that under the risk-neutral measure $\mathbb Q$ the process $$ S_te^{-rt}=S_0e^{-\frac{\sigma^2t}{2}+\sigma W^{\mathbb Q}_t} $$ is a martingale. In other words, under the risk-neutral $\mathbb Q\,,$ the numeraire $N_t$ is the money market account $e^{rt}\,.$ From \begin{align} V_t=F(t,S_t)=e^{-(T-t)r}\mathbb E\big[F(T,S_T)\big|S_t\big]\, \end{align} it follows directly that $F(t,S_t)e^{-rt}$ is a martingale as well. Applying Ito's formula yields \begin{align} &e^{-rT}F(T,S_T)\\& \quad=F(0,S_0)+\int_0^Te^{-rt}\partial_TF(t,S_t)\,dt+\int_0^Te^{-rt}\partial_xF(t,S_t)\,dS_t\\&\quad\quad+\frac{1}{2}\int_0^Te^{-rt}\partial_x^2F(t,S_t)\,d\langle S\rangle_t\\ &\quad\quad-r\int_0^Te^{-rt}F(t,S_t)\,dt \\ &\quad=F(0,S_0)+\int_0^Te^{-rt}\partial_TF(t,S_t)\,dt+\int_0^Te^{-rt}\partial_xF(t,S_t)\,r\,S_t\,dt\\&\quad\quad+\int_0^Te^{-rt}\partial_xF(t,S_t)\,\sigma\,S_t\,dW^{\mathbb Q}_t\\&\quad\quad+\frac{1}{2}\int_0^Te^{-rt}\partial_x^2F(t,S_t)\,\sigma^2 S_t^2\,dt-r\int_0^Te^{-rt}F(t,S_t)\,dt\,. \end{align} From the martingale property we know that $F(0,S_0)=\mathbb E[e^{-rT}F(T,S_T)]$ holds. It follows that \begin{align} 0&=\mathbb E\Bigg[\int_0^Te^{-rt}\partial_TF(t,S_t)\,dt+\int_0^Te^{-rt}\partial_xF(t,S_t)\,r\,S_t\,dt\\&\quad+\frac{1}{2}\int_0^Te^{-rt}\partial_x^2F(t,S_t)\,\sigma^2 S_t^2\,dt-r\int_0^Te^{-rt}F(t,S_t)\,dt \Bigg]\,. \end{align} Consequently, the Black-Scholes PDE \begin{align} 0=\partial_TF(t,S_t)+\partial_xF(t,S_t)\,r\,S_t+\frac{1}{2}\partial_x^2F(t,S_t)\,\sigma^2 S_t^2-rF(t,S_t)\, \end{align} holds.

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This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.