Deriving the Discounted Option Change in Carr and Madan's Formula
Summary
The document addresses a derivation in Carr and Madan's option pricing work, focusing on the time derivative that appears when applying Itô's lemma to a discounted option value. The question correctly identifies the asset sensitivity and second derivative terms but omits a contribution from differentiating the discount factor. The accepted explanation writes the discounted value using an exponential whose time argument varies over the integration interval.
Differentiating that expression produces both the time derivative of the option value and a term proportional to the interest rate and option value. The explanation also lays out the stochastic and quadratic variation integrals for the underlying forward. This resolves the specific missing term, but the discussion is a derivation aid rather than a full exposition of the paper's result; its formulas rely on the stated model and notation.
Key ideas
- Applying Itô's lemma to a discounted option value requires differentiating the discount factor as well as the option price.
- The time derivative of the discount factor contributes a term involving the interest rate and option value.
- The forward's stochastic change and quadratic variation generate the delta and gamma integrals.
- The explanation resolves one algebraic step and does not derive the full result from the paper.
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# Deriving eq. 5 in Carr & Madan 1998
# Deriving eq. 5 in Carr & Madan 1998
I don't understand this derivation from Carr & Madan (1998), specifically the derivation of the third term on the left (left-most term on the bottom line).
#### My attempt
Let $h(t, F_t) := V(F_t, t; \sigma_h) e^{r(T-t)}$. Applying Ito's lemma, specifically Shreve's theorem 4.4.6, I get:
$$ h(T, F_T) = h(0, F_0) = \overbrace{\int_0^T \frac{\partial h}{\partial t} \text{d}t}^{A} + \overbrace{\int_0^T \frac{\partial h}{\partial t} \sigma F_t \text{d}W_t}^{B} + \overbrace{\int_0^T \frac{1}{2} \frac{\partial^2 h}{\partial F_t^2} \sigma F_t^2 \text{d}t}^{C}. $$
I can convince myself of integrals $B$ and $C$. These are:
$$ B := \int_0^T \frac{\partial h}{\partial F_t} \sigma_t F_t \text{d}W_t = \int_0^T \frac{\partial V}{\partial F_t} e^{r(T-t)} \sigma_t F_t \text{d}W_t = \int_0^T \frac{\partial V}{\partial F_t} e^{r(T-t)} \text{d}F_t. $$
The last equality falls out of the definition of the Black-76 model with volatility indexed by time, i.e.:
$$ \text{d}F_t = F_t \sigma_t \text{d}W_t. $$
And $C$ is:
$$ C := \int_0^T \frac{1}{2} \frac{\partial^2 h}{\partial F_t^2} \sigma F_t^2 \text{d}t = \frac{1}{2} \int_0^T e^{r(T-t)} \frac{\partial^2 V}{\partial F_t} \sigma_t^2 F_t^2 \text{d}t. $$
My only issue is with integral $A$. I get:
$$ A := \int_0^T \frac{\partial h}{\partial t} \text{d}t = \int_0^T e^{r(T-t)} \frac{\partial V}{\partial t} \text{d}t. $$
But now what? I could apply the Black-76 differential equation, but then I'd get:
$$ \frac{\partial V}{\partial t} = V r - \frac{1}{2} \frac{\partial^2 V}{\partial F_t} \sigma_t^2 F_t \text{d}t. $$
This is not what they have. Where am I going wrong? It feels like I'm missing a financial rather than mathematical argument, where they're showing that
$$ \frac{\partial}{\partial t} V(t, F_t; \sigma_t) \stackrel{CM98}{=} -rV(F_t, t; \sigma_h) + \frac{\partial}{\partial t} V(F_t, t; \sigma_h) $$
somehow.
## Answer by KT8 (score 3, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/78393
Your problem is in the $A$ term. Using your notation, you should have
$$ d h(t, F_t) = \dfrac{\partial h}{\partial t} dt + \dfrac{\partial h}{\partial F_t} dF_t + \dfrac{1}{2} \dfrac{\partial^2 h}{\partial F_t^2} <dF_t dF_t> . $$ Integrating this from $T$ to $T'$, we get
$$ h(T', F_{T'}) = h(T, F_{T}) + \int_T^{T'}\dfrac{\partial h}{\partial t} dt + \int_T^{T'}\dfrac{\partial h}{\partial F_t} dF_t + \int_T^{T'} \dfrac{1}{2} \dfrac{\partial^2 h}{\partial F_t^2} <dF_t dF_t> , $$
where the second and third terms are just $$ \int_T^{T'}\dfrac{\partial h}{\partial F_t} dF_t = \int_T^{T'} e^{r(T' - t)}\dfrac{\partial V(t, F_t)}{\partial F_t} dF_t, $$ and $$ \int_T^{T'} \dfrac{1}{2} \dfrac{\partial^2 h}{\partial F_t^2} <dF_t dF_t> = \int_T^{T'} e^{r(T' - t)} \dfrac{\partial^2 V(t, F_t)}{\partial F_t^2} \dfrac{F_t^2 \sigma_t^2}{2} dt . $$ However, the first term is $$ \int_T^{T'}\dfrac{\partial h}{\partial t} dt = \int_T^{T'}\dfrac{\partial (e^{r(T' - t)}V(t, F_t))}{\partial t} dt = \int_T^{T'} e^{r(T' - t)} \left( \dfrac{\partial V(t, F_t)}{\partial t} - r V(t, F_t) \right) dt, $$ note the $t$ in the exponential, that "adds" the extra term you were missing.
Hope this helps.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.