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Deterministic Rates and the Link Between Spot, Forward, and Bond Yields

Article Quant Q&A · Author: bcf

Summary

The document explains how zero-coupon bond prices connect to instantaneous forward rates, short rates, and the bond’s yield. A bond price can be written as the exponential of the negative integral of forward rates over the bond’s term. Under risk-neutral pricing, it can also be written using the accumulated short rate. When the short rate is deterministic, the expectation in that pricing expression reduces to a deterministic discount factor.

Differentiating the bond price with respect to maturity shows that the forward rate observed at time t equals the future short rate at that date, given the deterministic-rate assumption. Thus the yield to maturity, expressed as an average over the term, is also the average of those short rates. This equivalence depends on rates being deterministic; the explanation does not establish the same relationship for stochastic rates or address details such as compounding conventions beyond the continuous form used.

Key ideas

  • A zero-coupon bond price is determined by integrating instantaneous forward rates across its term.
  • With deterministic short rates, risk-neutral discounting reduces to the exponential of the accumulated short rate.
  • The forward rate observed at time t equals the short rate at the corresponding future date under the stated assumptions.
  • The continuously compounded yield is the term average of both the forward rates and deterministic future short rates.

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Full text
# Bond Prices in terms of short and forward rates


# Bond Prices in terms of short and forward rates












Of course, a pure discount bond price $P(t,T)$ may be stated in terms of its yield $R(t,T)$ as $$ P(t,T) = e^{-R(t,T)(T-t)}. $$ Let's assume both the (instantaneous) short rate $r(t)$ and (instantaneous) forward rate $f(t,T)$ are deterministic functions. The relationships to discount bond prices are \begin{align} r(t) & = -\frac{\partial}{\partial T} \log P(t,t), \\ f(t,T) & = -\frac{\partial}{\partial T} \log P(t,T). \end{align} From this, it is clear that $$ P(t,T) = \exp\left(-\int_t^T f(t,u) \, du\right) \qquad (1). $$

On the other hand, the bond price is often stated in terms of risk-neutral expectations using the short rate, such as $$ P(t,T) = E_Q\left(\exp\left(-\int_t^T r(u) \, du\right) \mid \mathcal{F}_t\right), $$ and since I am assuming $r(t)$ is deterministic, it should be that $$ P(t,T) = \exp\left(-\int_t^T r(u) \, du\right) \qquad (2). $$ Comparing Eqns (1) and (2), it seems like $$ \int_t^T r(u) \, du = \int_t^T f(t,u) \, du. $$

Does this even make sense? Furthermore, since $P(t,T) = e^{-R(t,T)(T,t)}$, we would get $$ R(t,T) = \frac{1}{T-t}\int_t^T f(t,u) \, du = \frac{1}{T-t}\int_t^T r(u) \, du. $$ That is, the yield is both the average of the instantaneous forward rate (this is true), and the average of the instantaneous spot rate. Is this latter statement true?

## Answer by Gordon (score 1)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/21802

Since the interest rate is deterministic, for $t< u \le T$, \begin{align*} f(t, u) &= -\frac{\partial}{\partial u} \ln P(t, u)\\ &=-\frac{\partial}{\partial u} \ln \left(E\left(\exp\left(-\int_t^u r(s)\, ds \right) \mid \mathcal{F}_t\right) \right)\\ &=-\frac{\partial}{\partial u} \ln \left(\exp\left(-\int_t^u r(s)\, ds\right) \right)\\ &=\frac{\partial}{\partial u}\int_t^u r(s)\, ds \\ &= r(u). \end{align*} Consequently, \begin{align*} \frac{1}{T-t}\int_t^T f(t, u)\, du = \frac{1}{T-t}\int_t^T r(u)\, du. \end{align*}

## Answer by dm63 (score 0)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/21896

This says that if rates are deterministic, the spot rate follows the forward rates that are initially observed. Makes sense.

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.