Estimating Parameters for Geometric Brownian Motion with Random Time Changes
Summary
The document examines parameter estimation for a simulated asset process whose log-price increments combine geometric Brownian motion with exponentially distributed time intervals. The author proposes estimating the mean and standard deviation of log returns, then using the expected interval length to infer the underlying drift and volatility. The question is whether this simple moment-based approach recovers the simulation parameters.
The response clarifies that randomizing the time interval creates a time-changed GBM, rather than standard GBM. It relates the construction to a variance-gamma process and notes that estimating the additional time-change parameter requires more than the return mean and variance; a higher moment, commonly kurtosis, is needed. It also discusses rescaling a random clock to preserve the expected time interval, though the exact parameterization of the proposed gamma distribution merits careful checking. No empirical calibration or simulation results are supplied, and the suggested estimation approach is not worked through in detail.
Key ideas
- Exponentially distributed time steps make the simulated process a time-changed GBM.
- Log-price increments can be analyzed as a drifted variance-gamma process.
- Mean and variance alone are insufficient to identify the extra time-change parameter.
- A higher moment such as kurtosis can contribute to calibration.
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# Are my estimates of parameters of geometric brownian motion correct?
# Are my estimates of parameters of geometric brownian motion correct?
I wrote a simulation of a geometric Brownian motion which works like this:
- ${ t }_{ i }-{ t }_{ i-1 } \sim Exp(\lambda )$
- ${ Z }_{ i }\sim N(0,1)$
- ${ Y }_{ i }\sim { e }^{ \sigma \sqrt { { t }_{ i }-{ t }_{ i-1 } } { Z }_{ i }+\left( \mu -\frac { { \sigma }^{ 2 } }{ 2 } \right) \left( { t }_{ i }-{ t }_{ i-1 } \right) }$
- $S({ t }_{ 1 })=S({ t }_{ 0 })\times { Y }_{ 1 }$
- $S({ t }_{ 2 })=S({ t }_{ 1 })\times { Y }_{ 2 }=S({ t }_{ 0 })\times { Y }_{ 1 }\times { Y }_{ 2 }$
- $S({ t }_{ k })=S({ t }_{ k-1 })\times { Y }_{ k }=S({ t }_{ 0 })\times { Y }_{ 1 }\times { Y }_{ 2 }\times\dots \times{ Y }_{ k }$
In order to verify that my code is correct, I tried to estimate the parameters of my simulation from samples taken from it.
My parameter estimation strategy was like this:
I knew $\mathrm{E}[{ t }_{ i }-{ t }_{ i-1 }] = \frac{1}{\lambda}$
Since $\ln { \frac { S({ t }_{ i+1 }) }{ S({ t }_{ i }) } \sim N(\tilde { \mu } ,\tilde { \sigma } ) } $, I just used the parameter estimation techniques for normal distributions to estimate $\tilde { \mu }$ and $\tilde { \sigma }$.
Since $\tilde { \sigma } = \sigma \sqrt{ { t }_{ i }-{ t }_{ i-1 }}$, I reasoned that $\sigma = \frac { \tilde { \sigma } }{ \sqrt{ \mathrm{E}[{ t }_{ i }-{ t }_{ i-1 }]} } $
Since $\tilde { \mu } = \left( \mu -\frac { { \sigma }^{ 2 } }{ 2 } \right) \left( { t }_{ i }-{ t }_{ i-1 } \right) $, I reasoned that $\mu = \frac { \tilde { \mu } }{ \mathrm{E}[{ t }_{ i }-{ t }_{ i-1 }] } + \frac { { \sigma }^{ 2 } }{ 2 }$ where I used the $\sigma$ estimated from above.
Is my logic correct? I did not use any formal reasoning, so I am not confident my method for estimating parameters is correct. Can someone help me?
This is not homework. I am just trying to write program which behaves like the financial markets.
## Answer by Richi Wa (score 1, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/9821
First to point this out. You do not simulate standard geometric Brownian motion but time-changed GBM where the distribution of time is an exponential distribution with parameter $\lambda$ independent of the GBM.
Using the technique of time change one usually assumes that the expected time is unbiased. If you write each time interval as $$ (t_i - t_{i-1}) \Lambda_i $$ with $\Lambda_i \sim Exp(\lambda)$ one usually assumes that $E[ (t_i - t_{i-1}) \Lambda_i] = t_i - t_{i-1}$, and thus in short that $E[\Lambda_i ] = 1$. This can only be achieved if you use $\Lambda_i \sim Gamma(1/\lambda,1/\lambda)$.
You end up with a Variance-Gamma process for the Brownian motion.
You were on the right track. Define $X_i = \ln(S_{t_i}/S_{t_{i-1}}))$. This process is a variance-gamma process with drift. You find ways to calibrate this process on the mentioned wikipedia page.
With the additional parameter $\lambda$ it does not suffice to look at expected value and variance only. You need one higher moment - usually kurtosis.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.