Evaluating the Pseudo-Critical Price in Forward Monte Carlo Option Pricing
Summary
The document asks how to interpret the pseudo-critical stock price used in a forward Monte Carlo method for pricing American options. It presents the Barone-Adesi–Whaley call exercise-boundary equation, where the parameter Q2 is determined by rates, volatility, dividend yield, and time to maturity. The pseudo-critical price is obtained by evaluating the boundary formula with the current stock price as its input, rather than solving the equation for the optimal boundary.
The answer clarifies that Q2 is a scalar for the given model inputs and time, and is used as a number in the formula. The formula’s dependence on stock price comes through the European call value and its derivative, so the output varies with the current price. The exchange offers a narrow notation clarification, not a full explanation or validation of the forward Monte Carlo algorithm; it provides no numerical example or performance evidence.
Key ideas
- Q2 is a parameter value computed from market and contract inputs, not a function of stock price in this formula.
- The pseudo-critical price is calculated by inserting the current stock price into the boundary expression.
- The European call value and its stock-price derivative make the resulting pseudo-critical price vary with the underlying price.
- The answer clarifies notation but does not assess the pricing method’s accuracy.
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# A forward Monte Carlo method for American Options Pricing
# A forward Monte Carlo method for American Options Pricing
I am trying to implement the forward Monte Carlo algorithm from the paper "A Forward Monte Carlo Method for American Options Pricing" by Daniel Wei-Chung Miao and Yung-Hsin Lee. I am a little bit confused by the following notation:
Under the Pseudo-Critical Prices section, the authors state:
First, consider an American call option. According to Barone-Adesi and Whaley (1987) (BAW), the optimal exercise boundary $S_c^{*}$ for the call option should solve the nonlinear equation at any time $t\in[0,T]$
\begin{equation} \label{eq:2} S_c^{*} = \frac{Q_2(C_e(S_c^{*}) + K)}{Q_2 - (1-C_e^{'}(S_c^{*}))} \end{equation}
where $C_e(S)$ is the European call option price calculated by the Black-Scholes (1973) formula, $K$ is the strike price, together with the notation $Q_2 = \frac{-(n-1)+\sqrt{(n-1)^2 + 4m/k}}{2} > 0$ in which $m = \frac{2r}{\sigma^2}$, $n = \frac{2(r-q)}{\sigma^2}$, and $k = 1 - e^{-r(T-t)}$. Note that this study used more streamlined notations such as $S_e^{*} = S_c^{*}(t)$, $C_e(S) = C_e(S,t)$ when some dependent parameters are not stressed.
Replacing the critical price $S_c^{*}$ on the right-hand side of the equation above with the current stock price $S$ yields a new but closely related function $f_c(\cdot)$. $$\hat{S_c} = f_c(S) = \frac{Q_2(C_e(S) + K)}{Q_2 - (1-C_e^{'}(S))}$$ where $\hat{S_c}$ represents the pseudo-critical price.
In the algorithm I need to compute $\hat{S_c}$ but what I am not understanding is it seems that $Q_2$ will just equal some number but then the formula for $\hat{S_c}$ has $Q_2$ acting as some function which does not make sense since it is just a number. Any suggestions or comments on the matter are greatly appreciated.
## Answer by Wolfy (score 1, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/33201
To simply answer this question the author is just multiplying the numbers.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.