Expected Jump Multiplier in Merton’s Jump Diffusion Model
Summary
The document derives the expected contribution of the jump component in Merton’s jump diffusion model. Conditional on the Poisson count, independent identically distributed jump sizes with mean k make the expected product of jump multipliers equal to (1+k) raised to the number of jumps. Averaging over a Poisson count with intensity λ gives an expected jump multiplier of exp(kλt).
The derivation emphasizes that one must take expectations over the separate jump variables; a product of independent random variables is not the same random quantity as a power of one jump variable. Under the model’s stated independence and mean assumptions, this jump expectation offsets the compensating drift term −λkt, leaving the expected asset value at S₀ exp(rt). The result depends on the specified jump-size mean and Poisson arrivals; the document does not discuss alternative jump distributions, parameter estimation, or empirical validation.
Key ideas
- Conditioning on the Poisson jump count simplifies the expected product of jump multipliers.
- For independent jump sizes with mean k, the conditional expected multiplier is (1+k) raised to the jump count.
- A Poisson jump count with intensity λ yields an unconditional multiplier of exp(kλt).
- The compensating drift term offsets the expected jump contribution in the stated model, preserving expected growth at rate r.
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# Merton's jump diffusion
# Merton's jump diffusion
Can someone help me finding the expected value of the solution to Merton's jump diffusion model:
\begin{align} S_t &= S_0 \exp \left( \left(r - \frac{\sigma^2}{2} - \lambda k \right) t + \sigma W_t \right) \prod_{j=1}^{N_t} (1+\epsilon_i) \end{align}
where $W_t$ is a BM and $N_t$ is a Poisson process with intensity $\lambda$ and $k$ is the expectation of $\epsilon_i$. The Brownian Motion and Poisson Process are independent.
I know that
\begin{align} E \left[ \exp \left( \left(r - \frac{\sigma^2}{2} \right) t + \sigma W_t \right) \right] = \exp(rt) \end{align}
but what is
\begin{align} E \left[ \prod_{j=1}^{N_t} (1+\epsilon_i) \right] = ? \end{align}
## Answer by Daneel Olivaw (score 8, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/36340
Given for all $i$ the mean of $\epsilon_i$ is $k$ and that the $\{\epsilon_i\}_i$ are i.i.d., we have$^{\text{(1)}}$:
$$\begin{align} E\left[\prod_{i=1}^{N_t}(1+\epsilon_i)\right] &=E\left[E\left[\prod_{i=1}^{N_t}(1+\epsilon_i)|N_t\right]\right] \\[6pt] &=E\left[\prod_{i=1}^{N_t}E\left[(1+\epsilon_i)|N_t\right]\right] \\[6pt] &=E\left[\prod_{i=1}^{N_t}(1+k)\right] \\[13pt] &= E\left[(1+k)^{N_t}\right] \end{align}$$
By definition of the expectation and the distributional properties of $N_t$:
$$\begin{align} E\left[(1+k)^{N_t}\right]&=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(1+k)^{n}\frac{(\lambda t)^n}{n!}e^{-\lambda t} \\[6pt] &= e^{k\lambda t} \end{align}$$
$\text{(1)}$ Note a subtlety here that got me momentarily confused: the product of $n$ i.d.d. random variables $\epsilon_1,\cdots,\epsilon_n$ with same distribution as $\epsilon$ is not the same as the $\text{n}^{\text{th}}$ power of variable $\epsilon$. Hence, you cannot directly collapse the product $\prod_{1\leq i \leq n}(1+\epsilon_i)$ to the power $(1+\epsilon)^n$, you first need to "inject" the expectation into the product.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.