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Expected Shortfall as an Integral of Lower-Tail Quantiles

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Raveesh

Summary

The document proves a quantile-integral representation for expected shortfall of a continuous random variable. Expected shortfall is defined as the conditional mean below the quantile at probability level one minus the confidence level. The result expresses it as the average of the quantile function over the corresponding lower-tail probability interval.

One derivation represents the random variable as its quantile function applied to a uniform random variable, then rewrites the conditional expectation as an integral over the selected tail. A second route uses the indicator for the tail event and changes variables through the cumulative distribution function. The argument assumes continuity and uses the quantile transform properties; it does not cover adjustments needed for distributions with probability mass at a threshold or clarify alternative upper-tail loss conventions.

Key ideas

  • For a continuous variable, expected shortfall is the mean conditional on falling below its specified quantile.
  • The quantile transform maps a uniform random variable to a variable with the target distribution.
  • Restricting the uniform variable to the lower-tail interval yields the quantile-integral formula.
  • Continuity assumptions matter, and discrete distributions may require different treatment at quantile boundaries.

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Full text
# Expected Shortfall Formula in terms of P


# Expected Shortfall Formula in terms of P












Let $X$ be a continuous random variable and $Q_x$ is the associated quantile function. Show that expected shortfall $ES_X[p]$ at the confidence level $p$ which is defined as $$ES_X[p]=\Bbb E[X|X\leq Q_x(1-p)]$$ has the representation $$ES_X[p]=\frac{1}{1-p}\int_0^{1-p} Q_x(a)da.$$

Can some one give me a hint for this?

I know the definition of quantile function $Q_X(p)=\inf\{x: F_x \geq p\}$, I can think of it on an intuitive level, but want some thoughts to get started mathematically

## Answer by Quantuple (score 6, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/31393

Gordon's answer is spot on. Another way to see it though, would be using Bayes formula and a change of variable.

\begin{align*} ES_X(p) &=E\left(X \mid X\le Q_X(1-p)\right)\\ &=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x\, \phi\left(x \mid x\le Q_X(1-p)\right) dx \\ &=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x\, \frac{\phi\left(x\le Q_X(1-p) \mid x \right)\phi(x)}{\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \phi\left(u\le Q_X(1-p) \mid u \right)\phi(u) du } dx \end{align*} Now simply note that $$\phi\left(x \le Q_X(1-p) \mid x \right) = 1\left\{ x \le Q_X(1-p) \right\} $$ to be able to rewrite the integral as in the second line in Gordon's answer \begin{align*} ES_X(p) &= \frac{E\left(X\, 1_{X\le Q_X(1-p)} \right)}{P(X\le Q_X(1-p))} \\ &= \frac{1}{1-p} \int_{-\infty}^{Q_X(1-p)} x\, \phi(x) dx \end{align*} a change of variable $x \to y=\Phi(x)$ (the cdf of $X$) finishes the demonstration.

## Answer by Gordon (score 5)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/31391

Note that $Q_X$ is the pseudo-inverse of the distribution function $F$, and for any uniform random variable $U$ over $[0, 1]$, the random variable $Q_X(U)$ has the same distribution as $X$. Moreover, since $X$ is continuous, $Q_X$ is strictly increasing. Proofs of these facts are purely mathematical, and can be discussed some other questions.

Here, we assume these facts are true. Then \begin{align*} ES_X(p) &=E\left(X \mid X\le Q_X(1-p)\right)\\ &=\frac{E\left(X\, 1_{X\le Q_X(1-p)} \right)}{P(X\le Q_X(1-p))}\\ &=\frac{E\left(Q_X(U)\, 1_{Q_X(U)\le Q_X(1-p)} \right)}{P(Q_X(U)\le Q_X(1-p))}\\ &=\frac{E\left(Q_X(U)\, 1_{U\le 1-p} \right)}{P(U\le 1-p)}\\ &=\frac{1}{1-p}\int_0^{1-p} Q_X(a) da. \end{align*}

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This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.