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Forward-Start Option Delta and Volatility Exposure

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Arshdeep

Summary

The document analyzes a forward-start call whose strike is set as a multiple of the underlying price at the start date. Under a pure stochastic-volatility model, conditioning on that date and using the homogeneity of the Black–Scholes price shows that the normalized payoff has no dependence on the spot level at the start date. Its price can therefore be independent of current spot, yielding zero delta under those assumptions. The argument relies on the model structure and does not establish a general result.

A related payoff that pays the underlying price less a multiple of its start-date value retains a spot factor after conditioning. Its value can depend on the relationship between spot and future volatility, so it may have both delta and volatility exposure. The response also cautions that local-stochastic-volatility models can give the normalized option delta, and that volatility accumulated before the strike date may affect the option when it is linked to volatility afterward. These conclusions depend on the assumed model and dependence across time.

Key ideas

  • For a pure stochastic-volatility model, conditioning at the forward start date simplifies valuation of a normalized payoff.
  • Black–Scholes homogeneity helps show why the normalized forward-start call can have zero delta under those assumptions.
  • A payoff scaled by the start-date spot retains spot dependence and can be exposed to volatility correlated with spot.
  • Local-stochastic-volatility dynamics can produce delta even for the normalized forward-start payoff.
  • Volatility before the start date may matter when volatility across the two intervals is dependent.

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Full text
# Show that a forward starting option has 0 delta, and no sensitivity to volatility until the strike is determined


# Show that a forward starting option has 0 delta, and no sensitivity to volatility until the strike is determined












I need to show that the payoff: $([(S_{T2}-S_{T1})/S_{T1}]-k)^+$

a. Has 0 delta

b. Has no sensitivity to quadratic variation of the underlying till $T_1$

Additionally, I would like to know for what payoff of the kind $f(S_{T1},S_{T2})$ do these results hold? Particularly, I would intuitively assume that a payoff of the kind $(S_{T2}-KS_{T1})^+$ also respects these rule (b).

My thoughts:

For a lognormal model, (a) and (b) are immediate by just substituting the closed form solution to the SDE. Beyond that, I'm not able to say anything.

## Answer by user34971 (score 3, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/67750

I'll rewrite the first payoff in the more common form $(S_T/S_{t^*} - k)_+$, where $t^*$ is the forward start date, $T$ the expiry date, and today is $t$. So $t < t^* < T$.

I'll assume a pure stochastic volatility model (quite important to specify the model).

Then the forward start option price today is \begin{align} E_t \left[ \left( \frac{S_T}{S_{t^*}} - k \right)_+\right] &= E_t \left[ E_{t^*} \left[ \left. \left( \frac{S_T}{S_{t^*}} - k \right)_+ \right| \mathcal{F}_{t^*}\right]\right] \\ &=E_t \left[ \frac{1}{S_{t^*}} E_{t^*} \left[ \left. \left(S_T - k S_{t^*} \right)_+ \right| \mathcal{F}_{t^*}\right]\right] \\ &= E_t \left[ \frac{1}{S_{t^*}} BS(S_{t^*},t^*, kS_{t^*},T, I^* ) \right] \end{align} Since we are working with a pure SV model, first of all the implied volatility $I^*$ at time $t^*$ is a funtion of moneyness $S_{t^*}/(kS_{t^*}) = 1/k$. Furthermore, the Black-Scholes call price function is homogeneous of degree 1 in spot and strike, meaning that $$ BS(S_{t^*},t^*, kS_{t^*},T, I^*(k) ) = S_{t^*} BS(1,t^*, k,T, I^*(k) ) $$ Thus, the price of the forward start option today does not depend on the future value of the spot at $t^*$: \begin{align} E_t \left[ \left( \frac{S_T}{S_{t^*}} - k \right)_+\right] &= E_t \left[ BS(1,t^*, k,T, I^*(k) ) \right] \\ &= BS(1,t,k,I^{FS}(k)) \end{align} where $I^{FS}(k)$ is the (definition of) forward start implied volatility. It can be shown that the forward start implied volatility depends not only on $k$ but also on the future volatility over the interval $[t^*,T]$. But since $E_t \left[ BS(1,t^*, k,T, I^*(k) ) \right]$ does not depend on spot it is clear that the forward start IV does not depend on spot price.

Now for the second forward start option with payoff $\left(S_T - kS_{t^*} \right)_+$: repeating the conditioning argument above, and again using the homogeneity of the BS model you will obtain \begin{align} E_t \left[ \left( S_T- kS_{t^*}\right)_+\right] &= E_t \left[ S_{t^*} BS(1,t^*, k,T, I^*(k) ) \right] \end{align} Now there is a dependence on the future spot within the expectation, and in general, because the implied volatility $I^*(k)$ depends on volatility which is correlated with the spot price, the expectation cannot be evaluated easily. However, by change of numeraire (i.e. under the share measure), you can write \begin{align} E_t \left[ \left( S_T- kS_{t^*}\right)_+\right] &= S_t E^{\mathbb S}_t \left[ BS(1,t^*, k,T, I^*(k) ) \right] \end{align} In any case, the second payoff you specificied has delta and also exposure to (future) volatility.

The derivations / arguments above are valid for pure SV models. In (S)LV models, since the implied volatility is no longer a simple function of moneyness (and volatility), even for the first payoff you wrote there will be delta.

As for the statement/question do these options have exposure to quadratic variation up to strike date? I would say yes unless the quadratic variation over $[t^*,T]$ is independent of the quadratic variation over $[t,t^*]$ which I don't think is the case in general.

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.