How Black-Scholes Vega Relates to Gamma
Summary
The document explains how an option’s sensitivity to volatility, or vega, relates to its gamma under the Black-Scholes model. Differentiating the pricing PDE with respect to volatility produces an equation for vega with a source term proportional to volatility times dollar gamma. Applying the pricing representation gives vega as an expected time integral of that source term. Consequently, if gamma keeps a positive sign throughout the relevant states and times, vega is positive; the analogous conclusion holds for negative gamma.
A second explanation uses the formal PDE solution operator to motivate the relationship for European claims. It also notes that dollar gamma itself follows the Black-Scholes PDE between fixing dates. For a vanilla option without intermediate fixings, this yields the familiar connection between vega and current dollar gamma. The operator argument is presented as heuristic, while the expectation argument is more rigorous. The derivations assume Black-Scholes dynamics and require adaptation for rates, dividends, or claims with fixing dates.
Key ideas
- Differentiating the Black-Scholes PDE with respect to volatility yields an equation for vega.
- Vega can be represented as the expected accumulation of volatility times dollar gamma.
- A gamma with a consistent positive or negative sign implies vega with the same sign under the stated model conditions.
- For vanilla options without intermediate fixings, dollar gamma is a martingale under Black-Scholes dynamics.
- The formal solution-operator derivation is heuristic, while the expectation representation is more rigorous.
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# Relationship between Vega and Gamma in Black-Scholes model
# Relationship between Vega and Gamma in Black-Scholes model
my question is the following one: I don't manage to prove that, in Black-Scholes model, single-signed Gamma options have values that are monotonic in the volatility. I am looking for an exhaustive and general proof, since I know how to prove it for vanilla options.
## Answer by Antoine Conze (score 10, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/63258
Consider any option, vanilla or exotic. In between fixing dates it satisfies the Black & Scholes PDE (for simplicity zero interest rate and dividends) $$ \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 S^2 \frac{\partial^2 U}{\partial S^2}(S,t)+\frac{\partial U}{\partial t}(S,t)=0 $$ Let ${\cal V}(S,t) = \frac{\partial U}{\partial \sigma}(S,t)$ be the option vega. Differentiating the BS PDE wrt $\sigma$ you get $$ \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 S^2 \frac{\partial^2 {\cal V}}{\partial S^2}(S,t)+\frac{\partial {\cal V}}{\partial t}(S,t)+\sigma S^2 \frac{\partial^2 U}{\partial S^2}(S,t)=0 $$ So ${\cal V}(S,t)$ also satisfies the BS PDE, with continuous payoff $\sigma S^2 \frac{\partial^2 U}{\partial S^2}(S,t)$. Also ${\cal V}(S,t)$ is continuous wrt time on every fixing date (fixings do not depend on $\sigma$), therefore ${\cal V}(S_0,0)$ is the expectation of the continuous payoff $\sigma S^2 \frac{\partial^2 U}{\partial S^2}(S,t)$, that is, $T$ being the final maturity of the option, $$ {\cal V}(S_0,0) = \mathbb{E}\left[\int_0^T \sigma S_t^2 \frac{\partial^2 U}{\partial S^2}(S_t,t) dt \right] $$ Hence, if the gamma is $> 0$ everywhere, then the vega is $> 0$. It is easy to adapt to the case of non zero rates and dividends.
Added 8 Apr 2021: By differentiating twice the BS PDE wrt to $S$ we see that the dollar gamma $\gamma(S,t) = S^2 \frac{\partial^2 U}{\partial S^2}(S,t)$ also satisfies the BS PDE $$ \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 S^2 \frac{\partial^2 \gamma}{\partial S^2}(S,t)+\frac{\partial \gamma}{\partial t}(S,t)=0 $$ in between fixing dates. If the option is vanilla so that there are no intermediary fixing dates, this proves that $\gamma(S_t, t)$ is a martingale and we recover the well known formula for vanilla options $$ {\cal V}(S_0,0) = T \sigma \gamma(S_0, 0) $$
## Answer by user34971 (score 6)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/63259
I'll give a heuristic "proof" for general European claims which will cause mathematicians to feel sick, but which physicists / practitioners would probably be quite happy work with:
Write the Black-Scholes PDE as $$ \frac{\partial F}{\partial\tau}(\tau) = \mathcal{A} F(\tau) $$ with $\tau = T- t$, and the operator $\mathcal A$ is defined as $$ \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2 S^2 \frac{\partial^2 }{\partial S^2} + (r-q) S \frac{\partial }{\partial S} - r $$
The formal solution to the PDE is $$ F(\tau) = e^{\tau \mathcal A} F(0) $$ where $F(0)$ is the payoff of the claim.
We can treat $e^{\tau \mathcal A}$ as an operator that depends on the constant parameters ($\sigma$, $r$, $q$). So let's differentiate both sides of the formal solution of the BS PDE wrt the parameter $\sigma$:
\begin{align} \frac{\partial F}{\partial \sigma} (\tau) &= \left(\frac{\partial e^{\tau \mathcal A}}{\partial \sigma} \right) F(0) \\ &= \tau\sigma S^2 \frac{\partial^2 }{\partial S^2}( e^{\tau \mathcal A} F(0)) \\ &= \tau\sigma S^2 \frac{\partial^2 F }{\partial S^2}(\tau) \end{align}
With a bit more work the above can also be done if the parameters are not constant, but deterministic functions of time.
EDIT: I just saw Antoine's good answer below. My answer should be treated as an intuitive shortcut, Antoine's answer is the more rigorous one and hence the once that should be accepted by the OP.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.