Interpreting the Yield Spread Between TIPS and Nominal Treasuries
Summary
The yield difference between a nominal Treasury and a comparable TIPS is commonly called breakeven inflation, calculated as the nominal yield minus the TIPS yield. It approximates the inflation compensation embedded in nominal bonds: if realized inflation matches this measure, the two investments would be expected to deliver equivalent returns under the simplified comparison. The document notes that this compensation includes expected inflation and an inflation risk premium, so the spread is not a pure forecast.
TIPS liquidity can also affect the comparison. Because TIPS may be less liquid than nominal Treasuries, investors can demand higher yields for holding them, which can push breakeven inflation below underlying inflation expectations. The discussion points to the financial crisis as an example: breakevens fell sharply even though zero average inflation was not considered a plausible expectation. Thus, the spread is a noisy market measure shaped by inflation expectations, risk premia, and relative liquidity; the document does not provide a method for separating those components precisely.
Key ideas
- Breakeven inflation is the nominal Treasury yield minus the comparable TIPS yield.
- The spread reflects inflation compensation, including expected inflation and a risk premium.
- Lower TIPS liquidity can raise TIPS yields and depress measured breakeven inflation.
- Breakeven inflation is therefore a noisy proxy rather than a direct reading of expected inflation.
- The financial-crisis example illustrates how liquidity stress can distort the spread.
Tags
Full text
# What does the yield spread between an inflation linked treasury bond (TIPS) and a comparable treasury bond represent?
# What does the yield spread between an inflation linked treasury bond (TIPS) and a comparable treasury bond represent?
I'm trying to understand yield to maturity of treasury bonds.
For example, I have a 20 year inflation linked treasury bond which pays a inflation linked spread over a given fixed rate, and a 20 year fixed rate treasury bond which matures on the exact same day. The YTM on the bonds are different.
What does this difference in YTM represent to investors?
## Answer by Helin (score 6, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/25199
@AlexC has already provided the correct answer, but I thought I'd provide a bit more details.
The breakeven inflation (still the mostly widely used practitioner terminology) is defined as follows: $$ \text{breakeven inflation} = \text{nominal yield} - \text{TIPS yield}. $$ It is called the breakeven inflation ("BEI") because if ex-post realized inflation is identical to the ex-ante BEI, then an investor should be indifferent between investing in TIPS and buying the nominal comparator (both would generate the same returns).
As @AlexC mentioned, TIPS breakeven is closely linked to inflation expectation, but in reality, it is a highly noisy measure of the former. TIPS are much less liquid compared to nominal Treasuries, so investors typically require a HIGHER yield to compensate for the illiquidity risk. Of course, this makes breakeven inflation LOWER than the true inflation expectation. This was a huge problem during the early years of the TIPS program (investors were not familiar with TIPS) and during the 2008 financial crisis. The chart below plots 10-year breakeven inflation against a market-based measure of 10-year inflation expectation:
As you can see, during the depth of the financial crisis, 10-year TIPS breakeven traded down to 0, but surely no one expected inflation to average 0% over the next 10-years! At the time, TIPS became so illiquid that their yields are substantially inflated.
## Answer by Alex C (score 1)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/25195
The difference represents "inflation compensation", or the amount that fixed bond investors must receive over and above the TIPS rate to make them accept the risk of inflation. The inflation compensation is thought to consist of the expected inflation plus a risk premium which varies over time.
https://www.federalreserve.gov/pubs/feds/2008/200805/200805pap.pdf
An older term was "break even inflation" but "inflation compensation" is a better choice and is what Ms. Yellen, for example, refers to. The thinking has evolved. Current thinking is that inflation compensation has 2 parts, only one of which is a forecast of future inflation.
## Answer by Kayla Lee (score 0)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/73617
The YTM on the bonds represents the difference in interest rates between the two bonds. The YTM on the bonds is used to attract investors to one bond over the other.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.