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Long-Horizon Value-at-Risk, Drift, and Volatility Scaling

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Chris H.

Summary

The document addresses why percentage Value-at-Risk can grow sharply when a daily volatility estimate is scaled to a long holding period using the square root of time. Under a simple normal-return assumption, scaling daily standard deviation by the square root of the number of periods gives horizon volatility. Dividing monetary VaR by the investment removes the investment amount, so the resulting percentage risk does not automatically adjust for changes in portfolio value over time.

The answers note that long-horizon estimates may need to include expected return, since drift becomes more consequential over longer periods. They also caution that volatility may mean-revert, making direct scaling of a current volatility regime misleading; lower-frequency sampling or an alternative return model may be considered. The formulas and reasoning rely on modeling assumptions, including normal returns and specified annualization conventions. The discussion does not prescribe a single preferred VaR method or address other limitations such as tail risk and changing exposures.

Key ideas

  • Under a normal-return assumption, horizon volatility scales with the square root of time.
  • Dividing monetary VaR by investment removes the investment amount from the percentage calculation.
  • Expected return can affect long-horizon return quantiles and should be considered in the model.
  • Scaling current volatility across long horizons can mislead when volatility tends to revert toward a longer-term level.
  • The formulas depend on distributional and annualization assumptions and do not settle which VaR specification is best.

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Full text
# understanding Value-at-Risk correclty


# understanding Value-at-Risk correclty












The are several types how to calculate the VaR. I am focussing on the method of calculation the VaR in percentage.

$VaR=I*z*std*\sqrt{t}$

This gives the VaR in €.

I have the z-value, the daily standard deviation std, the holding period t, the investment I. Now let's assume the holding period is one year, that ist 258 trading days for which I have the daily standard deviation. So I multiply the whole thing by root(258). My results are reasonable.

Now to get the percentage of VaR as rate of the Investment, I will devide by I, which then will be cancelled out.

Now, I increase the holding period by, say 10 years. t becomes 2580. VaR in percentage becomes extremely large. Of course the Investment grows over time. Since it gets cancelled out, I can't grow it.

The VaR should be the rate of the average investment amount, right?

So I am struggling to implement the rate of VaR for a dynamic investment over a longer time horizon. Can anybody help me please or am I completely mistaken by the usage of VaR?

## Answer by AK88 (score 1)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/46239

Scaling volatility (standard deviation) is not the best option while calculating long term VaR. This has been discussed extensively in this post. See this page for the paper by Diebold et al. (1996).

Keep in mind that long term volatility is believed to mean revert to its long term average. So if an investment is currently in high volatility regime, then VaR calculated based on scaling this volatility is going to be misleading.

What you can do here is to change the sampling frequency to weekly/monthly to somewhat remedy the scaling issue. Then you can also incorporate your expected return on your Investment $I$ for the holding period into the VaR equation:

$$VaR = I\times \mu + I\times z \times \sigma \times \sqrt{t}$$

## Answer by Magic is in the chain (score 0)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/46235

Let's $\Phi$ represent the standard normal CDF, and q the required var quantile (e.g., 95%) so your $z=\Phi^{-1}\left(q\right)$.

Now assume the return x is normally distributed with annualised mean $\mu$ and annualised standard deviation $\sigma$. By the way you can annualise your daily volatility by scaling it by $\sqrt{258}$ because we are in simple normal distribution world, and you are assuming 258 days in a year. So we can write the quantile as follows:

$\Phi \left(\frac{x_q-\mu t}{\sigma \sqrt{t}}\right)=q$

We can rearrange,

$x_q=\mu t+{\sigma \sqrt{t}}\Phi^{-1} \left(q\right)$

So it is similar to your formula but with a drift. But please note t here is measured in years, and $\mu$ and $\sigma$ are annualised.

For smaller holding periods such as 1 day, you can ignore the mean/drift, but this becomes significant for longer holding periods. So as you increase the holding period, the process drift (upward or downward depending on the sign) and the variance grows. If you assume zero drift, the VaR will grow with the holding period. Which is intuitive because holding a stock, which is risky asset, for 10 years can make you a lot richer (or poorer!). But if you think the variance is growing too fast than could be considered realistic, then you can consider alternative specifications for the return process. In the interest rate world, an alternative mean reverting specification is more common, so the variance grows with horizon but at a deceasing rate. The simplest examples is the Vasicek model and is based on the Ornstein Uhlenback process, but I can see your question relates to simple settings so won’t go there.

There is also a chance you might be referring to the holding period as the length of the observation windows that you used to estimate the daily volatility. If that's the case, then just changing the observation window shall not by itself increase the VaR because we are annualising the volatility (the annual variance will be 258 times the daily variance under the above assumptions, irrespective of whether you estimate it using 258 days period or 2580 days period).

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.