Macaulay and Modified Duration of a Perpetual Bond
Summary
The document derives the duration of a perpetuity paying a constant annual coupon, whose price is the coupon divided by the yield. Differentiating price with respect to yield gives modified duration as the reciprocal of yield. It then uses Macaulay duration’s present-value-weighted time formula and the infinite series for the sum of time indices multiplied by powers of a discount factor.
The key distinction is that these two duration measures are not equal under annual compounding: Macaulay duration is modified duration multiplied by one plus the yield. Evaluating the series yields Macaulay duration as that factor divided by yield, resolving the apparent mismatch in the original derivation. The result assumes a positive yield, annual compounding, and a perpetuity with constant coupons; the answer clarifies the relationship but does not discuss other compounding conventions or bond structures.
Key ideas
- A perpetuity with constant coupon has price equal to its coupon divided by yield.
- Differentiating price with respect to yield gives modified duration as the reciprocal of yield.
- The infinite weighted discount-factor series evaluates using the geometric-series identity.
- With annual compounding, Macaulay duration equals modified duration multiplied by one plus yield.
- The derivation assumes positive yield and constant coupons.
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Full text
# Duration of perpetual bond
# Duration of perpetual bond
I am trying to derive the duration of a perpetual bond with coupon $c$ in two ways:
$$D=-\frac{\frac{\partial P}{\partial r}}{P},$$ $$P=\frac{c}{r}$$ $$\Rightarrow D = -\frac{-\frac{c}{r^2}}{\frac{c}{r}}=\frac{1}{r}$$
In the second approach, I want to derive the duration using the Macauley Duration (average PV-weighted time to maturity):
$$D=\sum_{t=1}^T \frac{c_t}{(1+r)^tP}\cdot t$$ $$\Rightarrow D=\sum_{t=1}^\infty\frac{ c\cdot t}{(1+r)^t\frac{c}{r}}=\sum_{t=1}^\infty\frac{ r\cdot t}{(1+r)^t}=r\sum_{t=1}^\infty\left(\frac{1}{1+r}\right)^t\cdot t$$ However, I am unable to show the convergence of this sum to $1/y$.
I came as far as to rewriting the sum as: $$S_m=\sum_{k=1}^mkx^k=\sum_{k=0}^{m-1}(k+1)x^{k+1}=x+x\sum_{k=1}^{m-1}kx^k+x\sum_{k=1}^{m-1}x^k.$$ $$\Rightarrow (1-x)S_m=x\frac {1-x^m}{1-x}$$
For $y>0$ we have $x=\dfrac1{1+r}<1$ and so the sum converges to $$\Rightarrow S_m=\frac {x}{(1-x)^2}=\frac {\dfrac1{1+r}}{(1-\dfrac1{1+r})^2}$$
$$\Rightarrow D=\frac {\dfrac{r}{1+r}}{(1-\dfrac1{1+r})^2}$$ However, I was unable to show the desired result $D=\frac{1}{r}$.
Can someone show the correct solution?
## Answer by Nicholas (score 3, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/22289
You were on a right track. In the first approach you've shown Modified Duration of perpetuity is $ModDur=\frac{1}{r}$. In your second approach keep in mind that $ModDur=\frac{MacDur}{(1+y_k/k)}$ so for annual compounding your second approach should converge to $MacDur=ModDur \cdot (1+r) = \frac{1+r}{r}$, which should be the case.
$$S_m=\sum_{k=1}^mkx^k=x+2x^2+3x^3+4x^4+...$$ now $$xS_m=x\sum_{k=1}^mkx^k=x^2+2x^3+3x^4+4x^5+...$$ subtracting $S_m-xS_m$ we get $$S_m-xS_m=x+x^2+x^3+x^4+...+:=A$$ now we note that $A-xA=x$ which yields $A=\frac{x}{1-x}$ and from $S_m-xS_m=\frac{x}{1-x}$ we find $S_m$ which is $S_m=\frac{x}{(1-x)^2}=$ and in your notions $x=\frac{1}{1+r}$ so $S_m=\frac{1}{1+r}\cdot(1-\frac{1}{1+r})^{-2}=\frac{r+1}{r^2}$
now we substitute the result into your formula $$MacDur=r\sum_{t=1}^\infty\left(\frac{1}{1+r}\right)^t\cdot t = r \cdot\frac{r+1}{r^2}=\frac{r+1}{r}$$Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.