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Mapping Black–Scholes Conditions Through a Variable Transformation

Article Quant Q&A · Author: meraxes

Summary

The document discusses how initial and boundary conditions for the Black–Scholes option-pricing PDE should be expressed after changing variables to obtain a transformed equation. The response gives the central rule: carry the original conditions through the same variable mapping used to transform time and the underlying price. For a logarithmic price coordinate, the terminal call payoff becomes the positive part of the exponential of the new coordinate minus the strike.

The surrounding discussion distinguishes the terminal payoff from the option value at earlier times, which is what solving the PDE on a mesh is intended to recover. It also notes that the stated PDE describes a European call and that, for a non-dividend-paying stock, early exercise of an American call is not optimal. The response is brief and does not specify the complete transformation or derive every boundary condition, so readers still need those details for a particular numerical scheme.

Key ideas

  • Initial and boundary conditions must be transformed using the same coordinate mapping as the PDE.
  • A logarithmic stock-price coordinate changes the call terminal payoff into a positive part involving an exponential.
  • The terminal payoff is distinct from the option value at earlier times, which the PDE solution computes.
  • For a non-dividend-paying stock, the response states that an American call should not be exercised early.

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Full text
# Black-Scholes PDE: what is the form of the boundary conditions


# Black-Scholes PDE: what is the form of the boundary conditions












I'm working on the Black-Scholes equation, but I'm pretty new to financial modeling. Right now, I am trying to understand the Black-Scholes PDE. I understand that the Black-Scholes equation is given by \begin{equation*} \frac{\partial C}{\partial t} + \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2 S^2\frac{\partial^2 C}{\partial S^2} + rS \frac{\partial C}{\partial S} - rC = 0 \end{equation*} with initial condition \begin{equation*} C(S,T) = \max (S-K, 0) \end{equation*} and boundary conditions \begin{equation*} C(0,t) = 0 \hspace{35pt} C(S,t) \rightarrow S \text{ as } S \rightarrow \infty \end{equation*} and $C(S,t)$ is defined over $0 < S < \infty$, $0 \leq t \leq T$.

The transformed equation is \begin{equation*} \frac{\partial u}{\partial \tau} = \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} + (k-1)\frac{\partial u}{\partial x} - ku \end{equation*}

The following matlab code implements this. My question is, what exactly is the form of the boundary conditions for the the transformed equation? I can't seem to understand the parameters (related to the boundary conditions) given in the Matlab code. Any related literature would be highly appreciated.

And as an additional question, for the following graph

,

you get the most payoff when you wait until t = 4 and S = $e^{0.5}$. Is this insight correct? Additionally, in the graph above, what is the implication? Since the payoff is greatest when time to go, $t$ is maximum, does this mean we should exercise the option early?

## Answer by Richi Wa (score 1, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/22035

You seem to be quite in to PDEs and less into finance. A call option gives at a future time $T$ the payoff $$ max(S_T-K,0), $$ thus if $S_T$ is bigger than $K$ then this is what you get, else nothing. The PDE tells you how the value changes with respect to changes in $S$ and $t$.

Theory tells us that the price of this option today (at $t=0$) is given as the discounted expected pay-off.

You solve the PDE on a mesh. There the value must be biggest, when $S$ is biggest. In reallity (and in theory on the whole real line) the value is unbounded.

EDIT: Note that the equation above is the terminal value. This one is triavial, the task is to calculate the price of this option at time $t$, $0 < t < T$. Furthermore mathematical finance deals with hedging of such a position.

I am not that much into PDEs but the one that you state is the PDE of the Europena style call -right? In this case you can only exercise the option at $T$. For so called American type options you can exercise at any point in time $u, 0 < u \le T$. If the stock is not paying dividens then you will never exercise early as the price of holding the option is always bigger(see here). In this case the price of the American style option is the same as of the European. Read about these two styles first. The basic reference is John Hull: OPTIONS, FUTURES, AND OTHER DERIVATIVES. You find slides on the web.

## Answer by user9403 (score 3)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/22062

The form of the boundary conditions comes from the transformation. If my transformation maps $t \to\tau$, $S \to x$ then the boundary conditions are mapped by $\tau \to t$ and $x \to S$. So if $x=log(S)$, then my terminal condition will be $(e^x-K)^+$

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This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.