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Market Portfolio Weights, Volatility, Beta, and the CAPM Risk-Free Rate

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Wolfy

Summary

This worked example uses two risky stocks, their volatilities and correlation, and a risk-free asset under CAPM. It distinguishes the market portfolio from the minimum-variance portfolio: market capitalization determines the market weights, which are then used to calculate expected market return and portfolio standard deviation. It also gives the beta relationship based on an asset’s covariance with the market and rearranges the CAPM equation to solve for the risk-free rate.

The answer corrects two errors in the question’s calculation: using minimum-variance weights in place of market weights, and applying the portfolio variance formula incorrectly. It provides a numerical market return and volatility, but does not finish the beta and risk-free-rate calculations with numerical values. Those require the market-stock covariance and the stock’s beta, respectively, and the conclusions assume the stated CAPM setting and inputs.

Key ideas

  • Market portfolio weights are based on each stock’s market capitalization.
  • The expected market return is the weighted average of constituent expected returns.
  • Portfolio variance combines weighted individual variances with the covariance contribution.
  • An asset’s beta depends on its covariance with the market portfolio.
  • The CAPM equation can be rearranged to infer the risk-free rate when market return and beta are known.

Tags

Full text
# Given two risky stocks calculate the rate of return, standard deviation, beta, and risk-free rate


# Given two risky stocks calculate the rate of return, standard deviation, beta, and risk-free rate












> Consider a world where there are only two risky stocks, $A$ and $B$, whose details are listed in the table below:

Furthermore, the correlation between the returns of stocks $A$ and $B$ is $\rho_{A B} = \frac{1}{3}$. There is also a risk-free asset and in this world the CAPM is satisfied exactly.

> a.) What is the expected rate of return of the market portfolio? b.) What is the standard deviation of the market portfolio? c.) What is the beta of stock A? d.) What is the risk-free rate in this world?

Solution to a.): We have

$$Cov(r_A, r_B) = \frac{1}{3}(.15)(.09) = .0045$$

Recall that

\begin{align*} \sigma^{2}_{P} &= \sigma^{2}_{A}W_A^{2} + \sigma^{2}_{B}W_B^{2} + 2\sigma_A \sigma_B cov(r_A,r_B)\\ &= \sigma^{2}_{A}W_A^{2} + \sigma^{2}_{B}(1 - W_A)^{2} + 2\sigma_A \sigma_B cov(r_A,r_B)\\ &= .0306 W_A^{2} - .0162 W_A + .0082215\\ \frac{\partial \sigma^{2}_{P}}{\partial W_A} &= 0 \implies \boxed{W_A = .2647} \end{align*}

Note that

$$\frac{\partial^2 \sigma^{2}_{P}}{\partial W_A^2} = .0612 > 0$$

thus the variance is at a minimum. Hence

$$E[r_P] = W_A E[r_A] + W_B E[r_B] = .1279 \approx .13$$

Solution to b.): We have

$$\sigma^2{P} = .006074$$

$$\boxed{\sigma_P =.0779}$$

For some reason that I don't fully understand, my professor in the homework has $9\%$.

I am not sure how to get question part c.) or d.) because it seems that there isn't enough information.

## Answer by Forgottenscience (score 3, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/32255

a.) The market capitalization $m_{cap} = 100*\$1.50 + 150*\$2.0 = \$150 + \$300 = \$450$, so the weight of each asset is $1/3$ and $2/3$ respectively in the market portfolio. You don't need to find the minimum variance portfolio. If you plug in these values you get exactly $E[r_m] = 1/3*0.15 + 2/3*0.12 = 0.13.$

b.) The formula is wrong, as you multiply your covariance with the standard deviations of the assets. The correct formula is $$\sigma_P^2 = w_A^2\sigma_a^2 + w_B^2\sigma_b^2 + 2w_aw_b\sigma_a\sigma_b\rho_{ab} \\=1/3^2*0.15^2 + 2/3^2*0.09^2 + 2*1/3*2/3*0.0045 = 0.0080506$$ Taking the squareroot gives you a standard deviation of $9\%$.

c.) The Beta of an asset can be derived as $\beta_a = \frac{\sigma_a}{\sigma_{market}}\rho_{a,market}$. You thus need to find the correlation, or covariance, between the market and stock a.

d.) The risk-free rate of the market can be considered as implicitly defined in the CAPM formula, $$E[R_a] = R_f + \beta_a(E[R_m] - R_f).$$ When you know $\beta_a$, you get $$R_f = \frac{1}{1-\beta_a}(E[R_a]-\beta_aE[R_m])$$

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.