No-Arbitrage Condition in a One-Period Binomial Market
Summary
The document poses a no-arbitrage question for a one-period market with a savings account and a stock that can end at either an up or down value. The initial prices are normalized, and the risk-free growth factor lies strictly between the two possible stock outcomes, each of which has positive probability.
Under these conditions, the model has no arbitrage: a risk-neutral probability can be assigned to the two outcomes so that the discounted stock price is a martingale. The response itself does not show this argument or derive the probability; it points to a textbook proposition for a proof. Thus, the market setup and key parameter ordering are available, but the document provides little worked explanation for applying the result or extending it to other models.
Key ideas
- The model has a savings account and a stock with two possible terminal values.
- The risk-free growth factor lies between the down and up stock outcomes.
- This ordering is the standard no-arbitrage condition for a one-period binomial market.
- The cited response refers readers to a textbook proposition rather than providing a proof.
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Full text
# One-Period Binomial Model # One-Period Binomial Model So, I'm required to consider the one-period Binomial market model for a particular question. We're told that the savings account is \$1 at time 0 and \$β at time 1. The stock price is given by S0 = 1 and S1 = ξ where ξ is a random variable taking two possible values u and d, each with positive probability. It is assumed that 0 < d < β < u. How can I prove or disprove whether this model has arbitrage opportunities? ## Answer by Bob Jansen (score 0) https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/63967 This is Tomas Björk's Arbitrage Theory in Continuous Time Proposition 2.3. The book also contains a proof.
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