Normalizing Correlated Brownian Motion Combinations
Summary
The document considers a time-varying linear combination of correlated standard Brownian motions and asks whether a scalar function can rescale it into a standard Brownian motion. It computes the combination’s instantaneous quadratic variation from the individual weights and pairwise correlations. When this variance rate is positive, dividing by its square root normalizes the instantaneous quadratic variation to time.
That calculation alone does not establish the desired result. Lévy’s characterization also requires a continuous martingale starting at zero, and discontinuities in piecewise-linear weights can threaten continuity. A second answer highlights a further constraint: for the rescaled process to be a martingale in the stated filtration, the relative coefficients on the component Brownian motions must remain constant. Thus the variance normalization gives a useful candidate, but time-varying weights need additional conditions; the answers distinguish the Brownian-motion criterion from the martingale restriction.
Key ideas
- The instantaneous variance rate of a weighted Brownian combination includes covariance terms from correlated components.
- Dividing by the square root of that rate normalizes quadratic variation when the rate is positive.
- Lévy’s characterization also requires a continuous martingale that starts at zero.
- For the rescaled combination to remain a martingale, the component weights must share a common time-varying factor with fixed relative coefficients.
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# Find the brownian motion associated to a linear combination of dependant brownian motions
# Find the brownian motion associated to a linear combination of dependant brownian motions
I have $N$ correlated standard one-dimensional Brownian motions $W_1,\ldots,W_N$ with correlation matrix $\rho$ and I consider the process $Z_t \equiv \sum_{i=1}^N \mu_i (t) W_t$ where the $\mu_i$ are deterministic functions that are at least piecewise linear. How could I find a function $\mu$ such the process $Y_t$ defined by $\mu(t) Y_t = Z_t$ would be a standard Brownian motion ?
## Answer by Olórin (score 2)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/45144
Let's calculate the quadratic covariation : $$d \langle Z,Z \rangle_t = \left(\sum_{i=1}^N \mu_i(t)^2 + 2 \sum_{1\leq i < j \leq N} \mu_i (t) \mu_j (t) \rho_{i,j}\right) dt$$ where $\rho_{i,j}$ is the instantaneous correlation between $W_{i}$ and $W_{j}$. So if we define $$\alpha (t) \equiv \sum_{i=1}^N \mu_i(t)^2 + 2 \sum_{1\leq i < j \leq N} \mu_i (t) \mu_j (t) \rho_{i,j}$$ and $W_t \equiv \frac{1}{\sqrt{\alpha(t)}} Z_t$ we see that $$d \langle W,W \rangle_t = dt.$$ As $W$ in $0$ is almost surely equal to zero as the $W_i$'s are, the only last hyposthesis to check to be able to apply Lévy's characterization (of continuous Brownian motion) theorem is that $W$ is a continuous martingale. It is obviously a martingale, and its continuity depends on the $\mu_i$'s which are piecewise linear but not necessarily continuous.
## Answer by Gordon (score 1)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/45154
In general, you are not able to find such $\mu(t)$ such that $Y=\{Y_t, t \ge 0\}$, defined by $\mu(t) Y_t = Z_t$, is a martingale, unless all $\mu_i(t)$ are scalar multiples of the same positive function.
In fact, note that \begin{align*} Y_t &=\frac{1}{\mu(t)}Z_t\\ &\equiv \sum_{i=1}^N \hat{\mu}_i(t) W_i(t) \end{align*} For $0\le s \le t$, \begin{align*} E\left(Y_t \,|\,\mathcal{F}_s \right) &=E\left(\sum_{i=1}^N \hat{\mu}_i(t) W_i(t) \,|\,\mathcal{F}_s \right)\\ &=E\left(\sum_{i=1}^N \hat{\mu}_i(t) \left(W_i(t)-W_i(s)\right) + \sum_{i=1}^N \hat{\mu}_i(t) W_i(s) \,|\,\mathcal{F}_s \right)\\ &=\sum_{i=1}^N \hat{\mu}_i(t) W_i(s). \end{align*} Then, for $Y$ to be a martingale, $\hat{\mu}_i(t)$, for $i=1, \ldots, N$, are constants. In other words, $\mu_i(t) = \alpha_i\, \mu(t)$, where, $\alpha_i$, for $i=1, \ldots, N$, are constants, and $\mu(t)$ is a positive function.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
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