Skip to content
All library documents

Option Return Volatility from Delta and Underlying Volatility

Article Quant Q&A · Author: David Addison

Summary

The document clarifies the distinction between an option’s expected value and the instantaneous volatility of its price. Under constant rates, the conditional expected future option value is described as the current value grown at the risk-free rate; conditioning on current information instead simply gives the current option value. Neither expectation is the option’s volatility.

For an option price driven by a stochastic underlying, delta hedging motivates the instantaneous price volatility: the stochastic component is the absolute delta multiplied by the underlying’s volatility and price. Dividing by the option value gives the option’s proportional instantaneous volatility. The answer further discusses how this relative volatility compares with the underlying’s, and why convex call payoffs can produce a ratio above one under stated assumptions. The relationship does not hold universally: puts and nonconvex payoffs such as spreads or digitals can behave differently. The discussion assumes continuous diffusion processes for its broader convexity argument.

Key ideas

  • An expected option value is distinct from the instantaneous volatility of its price process.
  • With a constant interest rate, the conditional expected future option value grows from its current value at the risk-free rate.
  • The option’s instantaneous price volatility is determined by absolute delta, underlying price, and underlying volatility.
  • Proportional option volatility divides that price volatility by the option value.
  • The relative volatility comparison depends on payoff shape and assumptions, so it does not apply universally.

Tags

Full text
# Variance of options returns


# Variance of options returns












Let's say we write a standard call option on $S_t$ which pays $Max[0, S_t-K] \,\forall \, t \in T $. Given that $\frac{dS}{S} = \mu \,dt + \sigma \,dW_t$, and, $V_T = (S_T -K)_+$, we can solve this under the Black-Scholes framework as:

$$V_t[S_t,K,\sigma_S,r,t] = S_t \varPhi[d_1] - K e^{-r (T-t)} \varPhi[d_1 - \sigma \sqrt{T-t}]$$

where: $\varPhi[x]$ is a cumulative distrbution function; and,

$$d_1 = \frac{\ln\left(\frac{S_t}{K}\right)+{(r+\sigma^2/2)(T-t)} }{\sigma \sqrt{T-t}}$$

What is the expected variance of this option's returns, $\sigma_V$? I.e., how does the process $E \left[ V_t \right]$ evolve wrt time?

Intuitively, the logarithmic variance should be defined if we constrain that the option must take non-zero, positive values.

I ask because I am trying to assess what might be called a compound option in which the parameters are adapted for $V_t$.

## Answer by Hans (score 5, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/38207

First off the $\mathbf E[V_t]$ is either redundant or not what you are after. If you mean to write $\mathbf E[V_t|\mathcal F_0]$, it is just $V_0e^{rt}$ if the interest rate is constant. I don't think this is what you want. If you mean to write $\mathbf E[V_t|\mathcal F_t]$, it is just $V_t$ and your symbol is redundant.

I think, though it is not clearly stated, you want the latter, i.e., are asking what the instantaneous variance $V_t$ is for the price process of an option. This is clear from the hedging argument of the option. It is delta hedged with the underlying $S_t$ to cancel the stochasticity or volatility (variance). So, the instantaneous volatility of $dV_t$ has to be that contained in $\Delta dS_t$ which is $|\Delta|\sigma S$. If we need the instantaneous volatility to be for the form $\frac{dV_t}{V_t}$, it is $|\Delta|\frac{S_t}{V_t}\sigma$. All the above argument is valid not only for the Black-Scholes setting but for the most general option setting. One can just as easily argue this with Ito's lemma.

The ratio of the option volatility over the underlying volatility is the percentage change ratio of the option over that of the underlying, or $\frac S V\Big|\frac{\partial V}{\partial S}\Big|$. Suppose all the stochastic process involved is a continuous path diffusion; the stochastic processes of the drift, volatility and correlation are all independent of the value of the underlying. Then the value $V$ is a convex function of $S$ when the payoff is. The proof of this proposition for the general case (not restricted to the Black-Scholes setting) is actually not trivial. So $\frac{\partial V}{\partial S}\Big|_{S_t}>\frac{V(S_t)-V(S=0)}{S_t-0}$ for a convex payoff. Call and put payoffs are convex functions of the underlying. For a general call, $V(S=0)=0$, which implies $\frac S V\frac{\partial V}{\partial S}>1$. But for a put, $V(S=0)=K\neq0$. The derivation breaks down. In fact, it is not necessarily true that $\frac S V\Big|\frac{\partial V}{\partial S}\Big|>1$ for the put, particularly when the put is deep in the money. It is also false for other options even for those where $V(S=0)=0$, so long as the payoff is not convex, e.g., a call spread and a digital option.

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.