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Perpetual American Put Pricing at Zero Interest Rates

Article Quant Q&A · Author: MMM

Summary

This exchange examines a proposed solution for a perpetual American put when the risk-free rate is zero. The question derives a power-function solution to the Black–Scholes equation, applies a boundary condition at very high stock prices, and concludes that the option is worthless. The response challenges that derivation, pointing out that the proposed expression does not satisfy the stated equation and that the exercise boundary conditions must be included.

The answer frames the perpetual contract as the limit of a finite-maturity American put, then uses value matching and smooth pasting at the exercise threshold alongside the condition that value vanishes as the stock price grows. It distinguishes parameter cases: one has no solution consistent with the stated bounds, while another admits a power-form value and an exercise threshold. This is a compact derivation rather than a full treatment; the result depends on the model assumptions and parameter conditions described in the exchange.

Key ideas

  • A perpetual American put requires boundary conditions at the exercise threshold in addition to the pricing equation.
  • Value matching and smooth pasting jointly determine the exercise boundary and option value.
  • The admissible power solution depends on the relationship between dividend yield, volatility, and the zero interest rate.
  • A vanishing value at high stock prices alone does not establish that the option is worthless.

Tags

Full text
# Pricing perpetual American put option when interest rate is equal to 0


# Pricing perpetual American put option when interest rate is equal to 0












Let us consider perpetual American put option with interest rate: $r = 0$.

The Black-Scholes equation in this case has the form: $$ \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2 S^2 \frac{d^2 V(t, S)}{dS^2} + (r-d)S \frac{dV(t, S)}{dS} - rV(t, S) = 0. $$

After applying PDE method I obtained that: $$ V(S) = A S^{\frac{2d+\sigma^2}{\sigma^2}}+ B, $$ when $2d+\sigma^2\geq0$.

Then using the fact that $V(S)\rightarrow 0$ when $S\rightarrow +\infty$ I have to set $A = 0$ and $B = 0$.

Finally, I obtained: $$ V(S) = 0. $$

I interpret it in the way that this option is worthless.

Hence, the stopping region is an empty set, and continuation region has the form: $C = \mathbb{R}^{+}$, because there is no optimal moment to exercise this option.

My question is:

- Is this solution correct?

- If I obtain that an option is worthless, which means that: $V(S) = 0$ can I say that continuation region is $\mathbb{R}^{+}$?

## Answer by byouness (score 2, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/39529

The PDE doesn't equal zero when I replace with the expression of $V(S)$ you gave. Threre is an issue in your PDE's the boundary conditions and its solution.

Let's start with the regular american put PDE, and deduce the perpetual american put ones, then solve for the price:

Regular american put

- Black scholes PDE is satisfied by the price for $S(t) > S^*(t), t < T$

- On $S(t) = S^*(t)$, $V(S(t), t, T) = K - S^*(t)$

- With a final condition: $V(S, T, T) = (K - S(T))^+$

- And the additional condition $\frac{\partial V}{\partial S}(S^*(t), t) = -1$ (we need this an additional equation to be able to solve for $V$ and $S^*$ at the same time).

Perpetual american put

Now, for the perpetual american, the value shouldn't depend on time, only on the level of the underlying: $$V_\infty(S, t) = V_\infty(S) = \lim_{(T - t) \rightarrow \infty} V(S,t,T)$$

Doing a change of variable $\theta = T - t$, and denoting $S^*_\infty = \lim_{\theta \rightarrow \infty} S^*(\theta)$ in the equations above gives:

- Black Scholes PDE for $S > S^*_\infty$

- $V_\infty(S^*_\infty) = K - S^*_\infty$

- $\frac{\partial V_\infty}{\partial S}(S^*_\infty) = -1$

Seeking a solution of the form $A S^\alpha + B S^\beta$, we have:

- $\alpha, \beta = \frac{-(r-d-0.5\sigma^2) +/-\sqrt{(r-d-0.5\sigma^2)^2 + 2r\sigma^2}}{\sigma^2} $. if $r = 0$ and $d + 0.5 \sigma^2 \geq 0$, then $\alpha >0$ and $\beta = 0$, in this case we have no solution (the put price should be between $K$ and $K-S$) if $r = 0$, and $d + 0.5 \sigma^2 < 0$, then $\alpha = 0$ and $\beta < 0$. In this case, $A = 0$ because $V(S)$ should be zero when $S \rightarrow \infty$ (argument that you made)

The last two equations above give in this case $B{S^*_\infty}^\beta = K - S^*_\infty$ and $\beta B {S^*_\infty}^{-1} = -1$

Which leads to: $$ V_\infty(S) = (K - S^*_\infty) \left( \frac{S}{S^*_\infty} \right)^\beta $$ where: $S^*_\infty = \frac{\beta}{\beta - 1} K$

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.