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Portfolio Weights and Wealth Dynamics in a Log-Utility HJB Problem

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Michal

Summary

The document asks how a risky-asset portfolio weight enters wealth dynamics and then the Hamilton-Jacobi-Bellman equation for maximizing expected log wealth. It presents a risky asset whose excess return follows a mean-reverting signal, alongside correlated Brownian shocks. The proposed wealth process uses the portfolio weight to scale both exposure to the signal and diffusion risk.

The included answer assumes a constant weight, applies Itô's formula to log wealth, and computes expected terminal log wealth. It then completes the square to identify an optimizing constant allocation under the stated setup. This provides an illustration of the role of the control variable, but it does not derive the general HJB equation that prompted the question. The calculation also should not be read as validating every displayed HJB term, especially the covariance contribution involving the signal and wealth.

Key ideas

  • The portfolio weight scales exposure to both the risky asset's excess return and its volatility.
  • The wealth process describes changes in capital under the chosen allocation.
  • Applying Itô's formula to log wealth introduces a variance adjustment.
  • The answer optimizes a constant allocation but does not fully derive the general HJB equation.

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# example Hamilton-Jacobi-Bellman Equation - clarification of $dX_t$ derivation using $\pi_t$, $\Pi_t$


# example Hamilton-Jacobi-Bellman Equation - clarification of $dX_t$ derivation using $\pi_t$, $\Pi_t$












I have a market with safe rate r and risky asset S $$ \frac{dS_t}{S_t}=(r+Y_t)dt+\sigma dW_t \quad \quad (1)$$ $$ dY_t = - \lambda Y_t +dB_t \quad \quad (2)$$ where W, B are Brownian Motions with correlation $\rho$.

I am deriving the HJB equation for the utility maximization problem $$\max_{X} E[logX_T] \quad \quad (3)$$

The V function depends on t, X and Y. HJB is going to be the drift of the dV function derived using Ito formula. Hence the initial dV function will be of the following form $$dV(t,X_t,Y_t)=V_t dt + V_x dX_t + V_ydY_t + \frac{1}{2} \big{(} V_{xx} d \langle X \rangle_t + 2 V_{xy} d \langle X,Y \rangle_t + V_{yy} d \langle Y \rangle_t \big{)} \quad \quad (4)$$

so I supposed to get the below HJB equation $$\sup_{\pi} \big{(} V_t + V_x (r+y \pi)x - \lambda y V_y + \frac{1}{2} (V_{xx}\sigma^2 \pi^2 x^2 + 2V_{xy} \sigma \rho \pi x + V_{yy} ) \big{)} =0 \quad \quad (5)$$ using the follwing dynamics $$dX_t=X_t(r+ \pi y )dt + \pi \sigma X_t dW_t \quad \quad (6)$$ $$$$

Now, I don't quite follow how the $dX_t$ is created and how the $\pi$ comes into play here. My guess is that it represents portfolio weight and $dX_t$ represents the change in the capital.

In the theory (study notes) I have a general formula for one variable and it looks like $$dV(X_t^{\Pi},t)=V_t + X_t^{\Pi} (r + \Pi' \mu)V_x + \frac{\Pi_t' \Sigma \Pi_t}{2} (X_t^{\Pi})^2 V_{xx})dt + V_x X_t^{\Pi} \Pi_t' \sigma dW_t \quad \quad (7)$$

The use of the $\pi, \Pi$ components confuses me. Could anybody clarify of the logic behind the use of $\pi$ and $dX_t$ derivation please?

## Answer by Gordon (score 4, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/26060

We assume that \begin{align*} \frac{dX_t}{X_t} &= (r+\pi Y_t)dt + \pi\sigma dW_t,\tag{1}\\ dY_t &= -\lambda Y_t + dB_t.\tag{2} \end{align*} From $(2)$, \begin{align*} Y_t = Y_0 e^{-\lambda t}+ e^{-\lambda t}\int_0^t e^{\lambda u} dB_u. \end{align*} Moreover, from $(1)$, \begin{align*} \ln X_T &= \ln X_0 + (r-\frac{1}{2}\pi^2\sigma^2)T + \pi \int_0^TY_t dt + \pi\sigma W_T\\ &=\ln X_0 + (r-\frac{1}{2}\pi^2\sigma^2)T +\pi Y_0 \int_0^Te^{-\lambda t} dt \\ &\qquad\quad \ \ \, +\pi\int_0^Te^{-\lambda t}\int_0^t e^{\lambda u} dB_u dt + \pi\sigma W_T. \end{align*} Then \begin{align*} E(\ln X_T) &= \ln X_0 + (r-\frac{1}{2}\pi^2\sigma^2)T +\pi Y_0 \int_0^Te^{-\lambda t} dt \\ &=\ln X_0 + (r-\frac{1}{2}\pi^2\sigma^2)T + \frac{\pi Y_0}{\lambda}(1-e^{-\lambda T})\\ &=\ln X_0 - rT -\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2T \left(\pi - \frac{Y_0}{\lambda\sigma^2T}(1-e^{-\lambda T})\right)^2 +\frac{Y_0^2}{\lambda^2\sigma^2T}(1-e^{-\lambda T})^2. \end{align*} That is, \begin{align*} \max_{\pi}E(\ln X_T) &= \ln X_0 - rT + \frac{Y_0^2}{\lambda^2\sigma^2T}(1-e^{-\lambda T})^2, \end{align*} which is achieved at \begin{align*} \pi = \frac{Y_0}{\lambda\sigma^2T}(1-e^{-\lambda T}). \end{align*}

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This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.