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Price-Based Tests for Calendar Arbitrage in Option Surfaces

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Jim

Summary

The answer derives a price-based condition for checking calendar arbitrage between European calls with different expiries. For a martingale underlying, the expected value of a call payoff cannot decrease with time. This follows from conditional expectation, the convexity of the positive-part payoff, and the martingale property. A violation of the resulting price inequality identifies a potential calendar arbitrage.

The mapping from this result to option prices depends on the underlying’s dividend treatment. With proportional dividends, calls are compared at matching forward moneyness and normalized by forwards. With known cash dividends, the answer instead uses a dividend-adjusted martingale and compares undiscounted call prices normalized by adjusted forwards, at strikes adjusted for the dividend stream. The discussion contrasts these price tests with nondecreasing total implied variance at fixed forward moneyness. These conditions rely on the stated modeling assumptions; applying them requires appropriate forwards and dividend inputs, and the document does not address settings where those assumptions fail.

Key ideas

  • For a martingale, the expected call payoff is nondecreasing across expiries.
  • Conditional expectation and convexity of the call payoff establish the price inequality.
  • With proportional dividends, compare call prices at matching forward moneyness after forward normalization.
  • Known cash dividends require dividend-adjusted forwards, strikes, and price normalization.
  • A price inequality violation can indicate a calendar arbitrage opportunity.

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Full text
# Calendar Arbitrage in a Vol Surface


# Calendar Arbitrage in a Vol Surface












I am trying to determine the condition such that my implied vol surface doesn't have calendar arbitrage. I have done research and found that one such condition is that total variance should increase along the time axis. However, I want to find a different condition using the call option price or forwards, or something to that extent.

Furthermore, I do not want to assume proportional dividends, same forward moneyness, etc. The information I do know is option price and forward prices.

My approach is something as follows. Let X and Y be unknowns. at t=0, I would need to pay (or receive) $XC(t_1)+YC(t_2)$ where $C(T)=\exp(-rT)BS(F_T,K,T,r,\sigma)$. Note that I am assuming that we are working with the same strike $K$. Let $X=1$ for simplicty. At $t=1$, if $S_{t_1}<K$, then my call expiring at $t_1$ would be worth nothing, and closing out the portfolio position, the payoff would be $-Y\exp(rT_1)C(t_2)$. If $S_{t_1}>K$, then my payoff would be $S_{t_1}-K-Y\exp(rT_1)C(t_2)$.

I'm not sure how I would continue my argument from here, though perhaps I want to use the fact that $C(t) \ge \exp(-rt)(F_t-K)$. I know I would first need to find out the quantity of $Y$ first.

Any help would be greatly appreciated. Jim

## Answer by Quantuple (score 9)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/24867

In a pure diffusion setting, you can equivalently write no calendar arbitrage constraints:

- In terms of implied volatility: total implied variance should be non decreasing in time, and that, for any given forward moneyness level, see Gatheral top of page 4.

- In terms of European option prices: see Gatheral end of page 3.

The price-based constraint builds on the following lemma

> [Lemma] If $X_t$ is a martingale, $L < \infty$ a real constant and $0 < t_1 < t_2$ two future times, then $$E[(X_{t_2}-L)^+] \geq E [(X_{t_1}-L)^+] $$ [Proof] \begin{align} E[(X_{t_2}-L)^+ \vert \mathcal {F}_0 ] &= E[\ E [(X_{t_2}-L)^+ \ \vert \mathcal {F}_1 \ ]\ \vert \mathcal {F}_0 ] \\ &\geq E[\ \left( E[X_{t_2}-L \ \vert \mathcal {F}_1 \ ] \right)^+ \ \vert \mathcal {F}_0 ] \\ &\geq E[ (X_{t_1}-L)^+ \ \vert \mathcal {F}_0 ] \end{align} where we have used, in respective order: Tower property of conditional expectation Jensen's inequality ($f : x \rightarrow x^+$ is a convex function) The fact that $X_t$ is a martingale

In a more general setting, one can still use this lemma to derive price-based constraints. The only question is: what martingale $X_t$ should we consider?

[Proportional dividends]

In a pure diffusion setting, it made sense to use $X_t = S_t/F (0,t) $, because $dS_t/S_t = \mu_t dt + \sigma_t dW_t \Rightarrow S_t = F(0,t)X_t$, where $X_t=\mathcal{E}(\int_0^t \sigma_s dW_s)$ is indeed a martingale (Doléans-Dade exponential). Applying the lemma then gives:

\begin{align*} & E[(X_{t_2}-L)^+] \geq E [(X_{t_1}-L)^+] \\ \iff & E\left[\left(\frac{S_{t_2}}{F(0,t_2)}-L\right)^+\right] \geq E \left[\left(\frac{S_{t_1}}{F(0,t_1)}-L\right)^+\right] \\ \iff & \frac{1}{F(0,t_2)} E[(S_{t_2}-LF(0,t_2))^+] \geq \frac{1}{F(0,t_1)} E[(S_{t_1}-LF(0,t_1))^+] \\ \iff & \frac{\tilde{C}(K_2,t_2)}{F(0,t_2)} \geq \frac{\tilde{C}(K_1,t_1)}{F(0,t_1)} \end{align*} where $\tilde{C}(K,T)$ denotes an undiscounted call price and $K_1=LF(0,t_1)$, $K_2=LF(0,t_2)$. This is precisely Gatheral's result: $$ \frac{C_2}{K_2} \geq \frac{C_1}{K_1} $$ (in his paper, he always uses undiscounted call prices and he chose $L=e^k$), since $$ \frac{K_2}{K_1} = \frac{F(0,t_2)}{F(0,t_1)} $$

[Cash & Proportional dividends]

In a more elaborate setting, it will depend on how you model dividends. Buehler for instance suggests a no-arbitrage pricing framework which can accommodate cash dividends, proportional dividends, and/or any mix of the two. In his model, it makes sense to use the martingale $X_t = (S_t-D_t)/(F (0,t) - D_t) $ where $D_t $ is related to the future dividend stream (all divs are assumed to be known in advance). Applying the lemma gives:

\begin{align*} & E[(X_{t_2}-L)^+] \geq E [(X_{t_1}-L)^+] \\ \iff & E\left[\left(\frac{S_{t_2}-D_{t_2}}{F(0,t_2)-D_{t_2}}-L\right)^+\right] \geq E \left[\left(\frac{S_{t_1}-D_{t_1}}{F(0,t_1)-D_{t_1}}-L\right)^+\right] \\ \iff & \frac{E[(S_{t_2}-(D_{t_2}+L(F(0,t_2)-D_{t_2})))^+] }{F(0,t_2)-D_{t_2}} \geq \frac{E[(S_{t_1}-(D_{t_1}+L(F(0,t_1)-D_{t_1})))^+]}{F(0,t_1)-D_{t_1}} \\ \iff & \frac{\tilde{C}(K_2,t_2)}{F(0,t_2)-D_{t_2}} \geq \frac{\tilde{C}(K_1,t_1)}{F(0,t_1)-D_{t_1}} \end{align*} where $\tilde{C}(K,T)$ denotes an undiscounted call price and $K_1=D_{t_1}+L(F(0,t_1)-D_{t_1}))$, $K_2=D_{t_2}+L(F(0,t_2)-D_{t_2}))$.

Observe that when $(D_t)_{t\geq0} = 0$, we fall-back on Gatheral's result. In Buehler, $(D_t)_{t\geq0} = 0$ iff there are no cash dividends (meaning there could be either proportional dividends or no dividends at all). This is completely consistent with what we have said in the pure diffusion case.

[Arbitrage opportunity]

Finally, note that the above inequalities describe the calendar arbitrage opportunities. In the second situation for instance, a PF where you are long $\tilde{C}(K=K_2,T=t_2)$ and short $(F(0,t_2)-D_{t_2})/(F(0,t_1)-D_{t_1}) $ units of $\tilde{C}(K=K_1,T=t_1)$ should always have a positive value (we just showed that). If not, it is an arbitrage opportunity.

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.