Pricing a Square-or-Nothing Call in the Black–Scholes Model
Summary
The document derives the price of a call option that pays the square of the underlying price divided by the strike when the underlying finishes at or above the strike, and otherwise pays nothing. Under a Black–Scholes lognormal model, the direct approach writes the discounted expected payoff as a truncated lognormal expectation. Completing the square in the normal density reduces the integral to the standard normal cumulative distribution function.
A second derivation uses the expected discounted square of the underlying as a power numéraire. Under the resulting measure, the option value becomes that numéraire’s value divided by the strike, multiplied by the probability that the underlying finishes above the strike. Both derivations yield a closed-form expression. The result depends on the specified diffusion, volatility, carry and discounting assumptions; it does not address model risk or departures from lognormal dynamics.
Key ideas
- The payoff is the squared terminal underlying value divided by the strike, conditional on finishing at or above the strike.
- Under a lognormal Black–Scholes model, the discounted payoff expectation reduces to a normal cumulative probability.
- A power-numéraire change of measure provides an alternative derivation based on a threshold probability.
- The closed-form result depends on the assumed diffusion and its inputs.
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Full text
# How to derive the price of a square-or-nothing call option?
# How to derive the price of a square-or-nothing call option?
At maturity $T$, the holder of a "square-or-nothing" call option written on an underlying $S_t$ receives a payoff of the form $$ \phi(S_T) = \frac{S_T^2}{K} \pmb{1}_{\{S_T \geq K\}} = \begin{cases}\frac{S_T^2}{K}, &\text{ if }\ \ S_T \geq K, \\ 0, & \text{otherwise}.\end{cases} $$
Assume a Black-Scholes diffusion framework where the underlying's risk-neutral drift $\mu$ and volatility $\sigma$ are given.
Can one derive a closed-form pricing formula for such an option?
## Answer by Gordon (score 13)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/26246
> I provided an answer, based on an elementary approach, to an exactly same question yesterday. However, that question has disappeared, even though I like to keep a record for what I wrote. I would suggest that people do not delete their questions as they may be helpful for others. Here, I re-post that answer.
We assume that, under the risk-neutral measure, \begin{align*} S_T= S_0e^{(\mu-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)T + \sigma \sqrt{T}Z}, \end{align*} where $Z$ is a standard normal random variable. Let \begin{align*} d_1 = \frac{\ln \frac{S_0}{K} + (\mu+\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)T }{\sigma\sqrt{T}}, \end{align*} and \begin{align*} d_2 = \frac{\ln \frac{S_0}{K} + (\mu-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)T }{\sigma\sqrt{T}}. \end{align*} Then, \begin{align*} e^{-rT}E\left(\frac{S_T^2}{K}\pmb{1}_{S_T >K} \right) &= \frac{e^{-rT} S_0^2}{K}E\left(e^{(2\mu-\sigma^2)T + 2\sigma \sqrt{T}Z}\pmb{1}_{S_0e^{(\mu-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)T + \sigma \sqrt{T}Z} >K} \right)\\ &= \frac{e^{(-r +2\mu-\sigma^2)T} S_0^2}{K}E\left(e^{2\sigma \sqrt{T}Z}\pmb{1}_{Z >-d_2} \right)\\ &=\frac{e^{(-r +2\mu-\sigma^2)T} S_0^2}{K}\int_{-d_2}^{\infty} e^{2\sigma \sqrt{T}z} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} e^{-\frac{z^2}{2}}dz\\ &=\frac{e^{(-r +2\mu-\sigma^2)T} S_0^2}{K} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-d_2}^{\infty} e^{-\frac{1}{2}(z- 2\sigma \sqrt{T})^2 + 2 \sigma^2 T} dz\\ &= \frac{e^{(-r +2\mu+\sigma^2)T} S_0^2}{K}\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-d_2- 2\sigma \sqrt{T}}^{\infty} e^{-\frac{1}{2}x^2} dx\\ &= \frac{e^{(-r +2\mu+\sigma^2)T} S_0^2}{K}\Phi(d_2+ 2\sigma \sqrt{T})\\ &= \frac{e^{(-r +2\mu+\sigma^2)T} S_0^2}{K}\Phi(d_1+ \sigma \sqrt{T}), \end{align*} where $\Phi$ is the cumulative distribution function of a standard normal random variable.
## Answer by Quantuple (score 9)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/26243
See this excellent paper by @MarkJoshi which defines/discusses the use of power numeraires.
Starting from a dynamics specified under the risk-neutral measure $\mathbb{Q}$
\begin{align} &\frac{dS_t}{S_t} = (r-q) dt + \sigma dW_t^{\mathbb{Q}}\\ \iff& S_T\ \vert\ \mathcal{F}_t = S_t e^{(r-q-\frac{\sigma^2}{2})(T-t) + \sigma(W_T-W_t)} \tag{EQ.0} \end{align}
Let us consider the asset (power numéraire)
\begin{align} N_{t,T} :=&\ \ e^{-r(T-t)} \mathbb{E}^{\mathbb{Q}} \left[S_T^2\ \vert\ \mathcal{F}_t \right] \\ =&\ \ S_t^2 e^{\left( r - 2q + \sigma^2 \right)(T-t)} > 0, \forall t \tag{EQ.1} \in [0,T] \end{align}
and define the unique equivalent martingale measure $\mathbb{Q}^N$ which uses this asset as numéraire.
From the Girsanov theorem (or using the rationale described in the aforementioned paper), it is straightforward to infer the dynamics of the risky asset $S_t$ under the measure $\mathbb{Q}^N$
$$ \frac{dS_t}{S_t} = (r - q + 2\sigma^2) dt + \sigma dW_t^{\mathbb{Q}^N} \tag{EQ.2}$$
since the Radon-Nikodym happens to compute as
$$ \left. \frac{d\mathbb{Q}^N}{d\mathbb{Q}} \right\vert_{\mathcal{F}_T} = \frac{N_{T,T}\ B_0}{N_{0,T}\ B_T} = \frac{S_T^2}{N_{0,T}\ e^{rT}} = \mathcal{E} \left( 2\sigma W_T^{\mathbb{Q}} \right) \tag{EQ.3} $$
where the notation $\mathcal{E}(X_t)=\exp(X_t-\frac{1}{2}\langle X,X \rangle_t)$ denotes the stochastic exponential.
Now, the price of square-or-nothing option can be evaluated as \begin{align} V_0 &= e^{-rT} \mathbb{E}^\mathbb{Q} \left[ \frac{S_T^2}{K} \pmb{1}_{\{ S_T \geq K \}} \ \vert\ \mathcal{F}_0 \right] \\ &= e^{-rT} \mathbb{E}^\mathbb{Q^N} \left[ \frac{S_T^2}{K} \pmb{1}_{\{ S_T \geq K \}} \left(\frac{d\mathbb{Q}^N}{d\mathbb{Q}}\big|_{\mathcal{F}_T}\right)^{-1}\ \vert\ \mathcal{F}_0 \right]\ \ \ \text{(change of numéraire)} \\ &= N_{0,T} \mathbb{E}^\mathbb{Q^N} \left[ \frac{1}{K} \pmb{1}_{\{ S_T \geq K \}}\ \vert\ \mathcal{F}_0 \right]\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \text{(use (EQ.3))} \\ &= \frac{N_{0,T}}{K} \mathbb{Q^N}(S_T \geq K) \end{align}
At this stage, because we have shown in $\text{(EQ.2)}$ that $S_T$ was lognormally distributed under $\mathbb{Q}^N$, plugging the definition $\text{(EQ.1)}$ of $N_{0,T}$ finally allows us to re-write the above equation as
\begin{align} V_0 &= \frac{S_0^2}{K} e^{\left( r - 2q + \sigma^2 \right)T} \Phi( d ) \\ d &= \frac{\ln \left(\frac{S_0}{K}\right) + \left(r-q+\frac{3}{2}\sigma^2\right)T }{\sigma\sqrt{T}}\\ \Phi(x) &= \mathbb{P}(X \leq x),\ X \sim N(0,1) \end{align} which is exactly the result given in @Gordon's answer and in Mark Joshi's paper, see middle of page 3.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.