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Pricing a Squared-Threshold Digital Call under Black–Scholes

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Actstu

Summary

The document prices a cash-or-nothing digital payoff that pays when the terminal stock price squared exceeds a threshold. Under the usual Black–Scholes assumptions with constant interest rate, dividend yield, and volatility, the key simplification is that the event can be rewritten as the stock finishing above the square root of the threshold, assuming the threshold is nonnegative and the stock price is positive. The claim is therefore an ordinary digital call with a transformed strike.

Risk-neutral valuation discounts the probability of that event at the risk-free rate. Since the log stock price is normally distributed under the risk-neutral measure, the probability is expressed using the standard normal cumulative distribution function. This avoids deriving separate dynamics for the squared stock price, which need not itself be a discounted martingale. The result is specific to a European payoff and the Black–Scholes setting; the document does not extend the formula to stochastic volatility, jumps, or other payoff structures.

Key ideas

  • Risk-neutral price equals the discounted expected payoff under the pricing measure.
  • For a positive stock price, a squared-price threshold event reduces to a threshold on the stock itself.
  • The payoff is equivalent to a cash-or-nothing digital call with the transformed strike.
  • The Black–Scholes lognormal distribution turns the risk-neutral event probability into a normal tail probability.
  • Deriving squared-stock dynamics is unnecessary for this payoff valuation.

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Full text
# Pricing call option using risk-neutral martingale approach with squared stock price boundary?


# Pricing call option using risk-neutral martingale approach with squared stock price boundary?












I have to use the risk-neutral martingale 5 step approach under BS pricing framework to price the following call option at time 0: $$X = \begin{cases}1, &{if} &S_T^2\geq K,\\0, & {otherwise}.\end{cases}$$ As the squared stock price in the boundary condition is unusual (and unlike anything I have seen in literature) I tried to calculate $dS_T^2$ under P to then calculate the equivalent martingale measure (under Q). By using Ito's lemma, I got: $$dS_T^2 = (2 \alpha +\sigma^2)S_t^2dt + 2 \sigma S_t^2 dW_t$$ I then tried to calculate this under Q by adding and subtracting $2rS_t^2dt$ (suggested in lecture material) and then rearranging: $$dS_T^2 = (2r +\sigma^2)S_t^2dt + 2 \sigma S_t^2 d\tilde W_t$$ $$d\tilde W_t = \frac{\alpha - r}{\sigma} dt + dW_t$$ I planned on using this to then compute the closed-form expression for the fair price at t=0 for a digital call using the remainder of the martingale approach, however when calculating $d(S_T^2)^*$ I obtained: $$d(S_T^2)^*=[(2\alpha + \sigma^2)-2r] (S_t^2)^*dt + 2\sigma (S_t^2)^* dW_t$$ Which under Q (relacing $(2\alpha + \sigma^2)$ with $(2r +\sigma^2)$) is not a martingale so I cannot use it for the remainder of the steps. Is this method correct? If so, where have I gone wrong? If not, what approach should I take to the squared stock price in the boundary?

Sorry about any format issues, I am very new to MathJax! Thanks!

## Answer by Kevin (score 6, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/51658

You do not really need the dynamics of $S_t^2$. You can simply apply your standard technique from risk-neutral pricing. The time zero price of a European-style contract with payoff $X$ is given by $$V_0=e^{-rT}\mathbb{E}^\mathbb{Q}[X\mid\mathcal{F}_0].$$ Thus, \begin{align*} V_0 &= e^{-rT}\mathbb{E}^\mathbb{Q}[\mathbb{1}_{\{S_T^2\geq K\}}] \\ &= e^{-rT}\mathbb{E}^\mathbb{Q}[\mathbb{1}_{\{S_T\geq \sqrt{K}\}}] \\ &= e^{-rT}\mathbb{Q}[\{S_T\geq \sqrt{K}\}] \\ &= e^{-rT}\mathbb{Q}\left[\left\{\left(r-q-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2\right)T+\sigma W_T \geq \ln\left(\frac{\sqrt{K}}{S_0}\right)\right\}\right] \\ &= e^{-rT}\mathbb{Q}\left[\left\{Z \geq \frac{\ln\left(\frac{\sqrt{K}}{S_0}\right)-\left(r-q-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2\right)T}{\sigma \sqrt{T}}\right\}\right] \\ &= e^{-rT}\left(1-\Phi\left(\frac{\ln\left(\frac{\sqrt{K}}{S_0}\right)-\left(r-q-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2\right)T}{\sigma \sqrt{T}}\right)\right) \\ &= e^{-rT}\Phi\left(\frac{\ln\left(\frac{S_0}{\sqrt{K}}\right)+\left(r-q-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2\right)T}{\sigma \sqrt{T}}\right) \end{align*} where we used that $\Phi(-x)=1-\Phi(x)$ for all $x$ and $W_T\sim N(0,T)$.

This is now just the price of a digital (binary) cash-or-nothing call option with strike price $\sqrt{K}$ and maturity $T$.

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.