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Pricing and Hedging a Binary Put in the Black–Scholes Model

Article Quant Q&A · Author: user20396712

Summary

The document derives the time-zero price of a cash-or-nothing binary put that pays one unit when the stock finishes at or below the strike. Under risk-neutral Black–Scholes dynamics, the payoff value is the discounted probability that the terminal stock price is below the strike. Taking logarithms of the stock process converts this event into a threshold condition on a standard normal variable, yielding a price equal to the discount factor multiplied by the normal cumulative distribution evaluated at negative d2.

The response corrects an attempted derivation whose sign and drift handling were inconsistent, and explains the inequality rearrangement leading to the negative-d2 term. Although the original question also asks for the stock position in the replicating hedge, the accepted answer does not derive that position. The result assumes the standard Black–Scholes model, constant volatility and rate, and a unit cash payoff; it is not a treatment of transaction costs or alternative models.

Key ideas

  • Risk-neutral valuation discounts the probability that the terminal stock price is below the strike.
  • Taking logarithms maps the payoff event to a standard normal threshold.
  • The binary put price is the discount factor times the normal CDF at negative d2.
  • The accepted answer corrects the sign by explicitly rearranging the threshold inequality.
  • The requested hedge position is not developed in the response.

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Full text
# Is my solution on Black Scholes correct?


# Is my solution on Black Scholes correct?












Question: Consider in the context of the Black Scholes model with stock price dynamics $d S_{t}=\mu S_{t} d t+\sigma S_{t} d W_{t}$, initial stock price $S_{0}>0$ and with money market account $B_{t}=\exp (r t)$ for $r>0$ a so-called binary put option with payoff $h\left(S_{T}\right)=1_{\left\{S_{T} \leq K\right\}}$ for some $K>0$. Use the risk neutral pricing formula to compute the price of the option at $t=0$ and the stock position of the corresponding hedging portfolio.

### This is what I've tried:

The price of a binary put option with payoff $h(S_T) = 1_{\{S_T \leq K\}}$ can be obtained by taking the risk-neutral expectation of the binary payoff under the Black-Scholes model.

Using the Black-Scholes formula, the stock price $S_T$ at expiration follows a lognormal distribution, given by: $$S_T = S_0 \cdot e^{(r - \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2)T + \sigma \sqrt{T} Z},$$ where $S_0$ is the initial stock price, $r$ is the risk-free interest rate, $\sigma$ is the stock price volatility, $T$ is the time to expiration, and $Z$ is a standard normal random variable.

To calculate the expectation, we evaluate the probability that $S_T \leq K$ under the lognormal distribution: $$\mathbb{E}[h(S_T)] = \mathbb{P}(S_T \leq K).$$

Taking the natural logarithm of both sides, we get: $$\ln(S_T) = \ln(S_0) + (r - \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2)T + \sigma \sqrt{T} Z.$$

Rearranging the inequality, we have: $$\ln\left(\frac{S_T}{S_0}\right) \leq \ln\left(\frac{K}{S_0}\right).$$

Substituting the expression for $\ln(S_T)$, we obtain: $$\ln\left(\frac{S_0 \cdot e^{(r - \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2)T + \sigma \sqrt{T} Z}}{S_0}\right) \leq \ln\left(\frac{K}{S_0}\right).$$

Simplifying further, we have: $$(r - \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2)T + \sigma \sqrt{T} Z \leq \ln\left(\frac{K}{S_0}\right).$$

Since $Z$ is a standard normal random variable, the probability $\mathbb{P}(S_T \leq K)$ is equivalent to the probability $\mathbb{P}\left((r - \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2)T + \sigma \sqrt{T} Z \leq \ln\left(\frac{K}{S_0}\right)\right)$.

We can now use the standard normal cumulative distribution function $\Phi(\cdot)$ to calculate the probability: $$\mathbb{E}[h(S_T)] = \mathbb{P}(S_T \leq K) = \Phi\left(\frac{\ln\left(\frac{S_0}{K}\right) + (r - \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2)T}{\sigma \sqrt{T}}\right).$$

Therefore, the price of the binary put option at time $t = 0$ is given by the risk-neutral expectation: $$\text{Price} = e^{-rT} \cdot \mathbb{E}[h(S_T)] = e^{-rT} \cdot \Phi\left(\frac{\ln\left(\frac{S_0}{K}\right) + (r - \frac{1}{2} \sigma^2)T}{\sigma \sqrt{T}}\right).$$

### updated:

To calculate the price of the binary put option at time $t = 0$, assuming a risk-free interest rate of zero, we can use the cumulative distribution function of $-d_2$:

$$\text{Price} = e^{-rT} \cdot \mathbb{P}(S_T \leq K) = e^{-rT} \cdot \Phi(-d_2),$$

where $\Phi(\cdot)$ is the cumulative distribution function of a standard normal random variable.

To compute $d_2$, we first calculate $d_1$ using the formula:

$$d_1 = \frac{\ln\left(\frac{S_0}{K}\right)}{\sigma \sqrt{T}} + \frac{1}{2}\sigma \sqrt{T}.$$

Then, we can obtain $d_2$ as:

$$d_2 = d_1 - \sigma \sqrt{T}.$$

Finally, we substitute $d_2$ into the expression for the price of the binary put option:

$$\text{Price} = e^{-rT} \cdot \Phi\left(-\left(d_1 - \sigma \sqrt{T}\right)\right).$$

## Answer by Frido (score 2, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/75912

Too long for a comment so posting as answer.

I am not sure your update makes sense, it seems to me that you're just `making' it work.

In your first attempt, everything made sense until $$ \mathbb P(rT - \tfrac12 \sigma^2T + \sigma \sqrt T Z \leq \log K/S_0) $$ and after that you reached a wrong conclusion without detailing the in between steps.

The point is that $$ rT - \tfrac12 \sigma^2T + \sigma \sqrt T Z \leq \log K/S_0 $$ is equivalent to $$ Z \leq \frac{\log K/S_0 - rT + \tfrac12 \sigma^2T}{\sigma \sqrt T} = -d_2 $$ And using this and the fact that $Z$ is a standard normal distributed it follows that the price of the binary put is $$ e^{-rT} N(-d_2) $$

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This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.