Pricing Options on a Mean-Reverting Log-Price Process
Summary
The document derives a European call pricing approach when the logarithm of the underlying price follows a mean-reverting stochastic process. It first obtains the conditional distribution of the future price and the corresponding futures price, then uses the futures contract’s time-varying volatility in a Black–Scholes-style formula. The adjusted volatility reflects that shocks to the underlying decay as the process reverts toward its long-run level.
The discussion addresses a perceived mismatch between simulation results and option values across maturities: similar distributions of terminal prices do not by themselves imply identical option values, because the pricing formula depends on the conditional futures level and integrated variance over the remaining life. The result is for European exercise and assumes the stated process and pricing setup; it does not establish that mean reversion is empirically appropriate or address calibration, jumps, or other market features.
Key ideas
- Under the specified model, log prices revert toward a long-run level while random shocks accumulate over time.
- The conditional distribution of the terminal price leads to a maturity-dependent futures price.
- The futures volatility used in option pricing averages the decaying instantaneous volatility over the remaining life.
- A Black–Scholes-style formula can price a European call using the futures price and adjusted volatility.
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Full text
# Option pricing and mean reversion
# Option pricing and mean reversion
In different books one can find a formula for option pricing when we assume that $\ln(S)$ follows a mean reversion process
$$ dS_t/S_t=\kappa(\theta-\ln(S_t))dt+\sigma dZ$$
If we calculate an adjusted volatility
$$\hat{\sigma}=\sigma\sqrt{\frac{1-e^{-2\kappa T}}{2\kappa}}$$
we can use the standard Black-Scholes formula (see for example "The complete guide to option pricing formulas" from Espen Gaarder Haug, page 410).
This has the effect that the price for the option increases with the time to expiry.
But for me there are now two problems:
(1) This is not intuitive because the distribution of the prices in the futures is almost the same if the price is really mean reverting (assume $T \in \{1,2,3\}$)
(2) If I do a Monte Carlo based on a discretization of the stochastic process and calculate the mean of the payout I get the expected result: The option price does not change with time to expiry
How does this fit together?
P.S.: For simplicity we assume that the risk free interest rate $r$ is $0$.
## Answer by Gordon (score 8)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/40188
From the SDE \begin{align*} \frac{dS_t}{S_t}= k(\theta-\ln S_t) dt + \sigma dW_t, \end{align*} where $\{W_t,\, t\ge 0\}$ is a standard Brownian motion, we obtain that \begin{align*} d(e^{kt}\ln S_t) = ke^{kt} \Big(\theta -\frac{1}{2k}\sigma^2\Big) dt + \sigma e^{kt} dW_t. \end{align*} Then, \begin{align*} \ln S_T = e^{-k(T-t)} \ln S_t + \Big(\theta -\frac{1}{2k}\sigma^2\Big)\Big(1-e^{-k(T-t)} \Big)+\sigma \int_t^T e^{-k(T-s)} dW_s. \end{align*} Moreover, for $0 \le t \le T$, the futures price at time $t$ is given by \begin{align*} f(t, T) &= E(S_T\,|\, \mathcal{F}_t)\\ &=\exp\bigg(e^{-k(T-t)} \ln S_t + \Big(\theta -\frac{1}{2k}\sigma^2\Big)\Big(1-e^{-k(T-t)} \Big)+ \frac{\sigma^2}{4k} \Big(1-e^{-2k(T-t)} \Big) \bigg). \end{align*} Note that, $f(T, T) = S_T$, and \begin{align*} df(t, T) &= \sigma e^{-k(T-t)}f(t, T)dW_t,\\ f(0, T) &= \exp\bigg(e^{-kT} \ln S_0 + \Big(\theta -\frac{1}{2k}\sigma^2\Big)\Big(1-e^{-kT} \Big)+ \frac{\sigma^2}{4k} \Big(1-e^{-2kT} \Big) \bigg). \end{align*} For $0\le t \le T$, let \begin{align*} \sigma_{t,T}^f &= \sqrt{\frac{1}{T-t}\int_t^T \sigma^2 e^{-2k(T-s)} ds}\\ &=\sigma\sqrt{\frac{1-e^{-2k(T-t)}}{2k(T-t)}}. \end{align*} Then, the price, at time $0\le t \le T$, of a European exercise style call option with payoff $$(S_T-K)^+,$$ at maturity $T$, is given by \begin{align*} e^{-r(T-t)}\big[f(t, T)\Phi(d_1) - K\Phi(d_2) \big], \end{align*} where $\Phi$ is the cumulative distribution function of a standard normal random variable, and \begin{align*} d_{1, 2} = \frac{\ln\frac{f(t, T)}{K} \pm \frac{(\sigma_{t,T}^f)^2}{2} (T-t)}{\sigma_{t,T}^f \sqrt{T-t}}. \end{align*}Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.