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Pricing the Minimum or Maximum of Two Assets with Margrabe’s Formula

Article Quant Q&A · Author: Dreason94

Summary

The document shows how claims on the minimum or maximum of two asset prices at maturity can be decomposed into one asset plus or minus a call-like payoff on the difference between the assets. In a Black–Scholes setting, the difference payoff can be valued with Margrabe’s exchange option formula, which gives a route to pricing both claims.

It also sketches a change of numeraire: under the measure associated with one stock as numeraire, the discounted claim can be expressed using the ratio of the two stock prices. The ratio is lognormal in the stated framework, and the measure change must make that ratio a martingale. The explanation is conceptual rather than a full worked valuation. It assumes the Black–Scholes framework and does not detail adjustments for dividends, differing currencies, or other market frictions; those assumptions matter when applying the method beyond the simplified setup.

Key ideas

  • The maximum of two terminal asset prices can be decomposed into one asset and an exchange option payoff.
  • The minimum can be written as one asset minus an exchange option payoff.
  • Margrabe’s formula values the call-like payoff on the difference between two assets in the stated framework.
  • Changing to a stock numeraire expresses the claim through the ratio of the two asset prices.
  • The ratio must be a martingale under the measure associated with the chosen numeraire.

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Full text
# How to determine the no arbitrage price of following claim? (change of numeraire)


# How to determine the no arbitrage price of following claim? (change of numeraire)












How do I determine the no arbitrage price for claims such as $min(S_1(T),S_2(T))$ or $max(S_1(T),S_2(T))$? We can consider a standard Black Scholes model. Hence $S_i(T)=S_i(t)e^{(r-\sigma_i^2/2)(T-t)+\sigma_i(W(T)-W(t))}$ and that W is brownian motion.

After some reading I saw that I need to perform change of numeraire when valuating the NA price for these kind of claims. Could anyone guide me? Thank you.

## Answer by Daneel Olivaw (score 3, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/50246

Note that:

$$\begin{align} &\max(S_T^1,S_T^2)=S_T^2+\max(S_T^1-S_T^2,0) \\ &\min(S_T^1,S_T^2)=S_T^2-\max(S_T^2-S_T^1,0) \end{align}$$ Terms of the form $\max(S_T^i-S_T^j,0)$ can be evaluated with the Margrabe’s formula in a Black-Scholes framework.

Regarding the change of numéraire, I give a sketch of how one would proceed. Letting $\xi_T$ be the payoff at $T$, we have in all generality, with $B_T$ the money market account: $$\begin{align} E^\mathcal{Q}\left(\frac{\xi_T}{B_T}\right)&=E^\mathcal{S}\left(\frac{B_TS_0}{B_0S_T}\frac{\xi_T}{B_T}\right) \\ &=S_0E^\mathcal{S}\left(\frac{\xi_T}{S_T}\right) \end{align}$$ where $\mathcal{Q}$ is the risk-neutral measure, with the money market account as numéraire, and $\mathcal{S}$ the measure with the stock price as numéraire (note that $B_0=1$). Here, $\xi_T=\max(S_T^i-S_T^j,0)$ hence if you choose $S^j$ as numéraire you get: $$E^\mathcal{Q}\left(\frac{\xi_T}{B_T}\right)=S_0^jE^{\mathcal{S}^j}\left(\max\left(\frac{S_T^i}{S_T^j}-1,0\right)\right)$$ The ratio $S^i/S^j$ will be lognormally distributed in a Black-Scholes framework. Keep in mind you need to ensure the ratio is martingale, as any traded asset rebased by a numéraire is a martingale under the measure associated to that numéraire. For that, you have to apply Itô’s Lemma to the ratio and define the Brownian Motion $W^{\mathcal{S}^j}_t=W^\mathcal{Q}_t+\theta_t$ by setting $\theta_t$ such that $S^i/S^j$ has no drift.

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.