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Put–Call Parity for Options on Futures Before Futures Expiry

Article Quant Q&A · Author: WeakLearner

Summary

The document explains a timing distinction in put–call parity for options on futures. At option expiry, the underlying futures contract may still be open. The value of a futures position then reflects the difference between the current futures price for that delivery date and the contract’s original futures price, rather than the spot price minus the original futures price. The latter describes settlement when the futures contract itself expires.

It also gives an intuitive parity argument: a long call combined with a short put at the same strike produces a synthetic long position at option expiry, whether the market finishes above or below the strike. No-arbitrage therefore links the call-put price difference to the value of agreeing to buy the underlying at the strike, with adjustments depending on discounting and contract terms. The discussion is conceptual and does not provide a full formal derivation; treatment of premiums, margin interest, and settlement conventions can affect the precise formula.

Key ideas

  • The option expiry date can occur before the futures contract expires.
  • At option expiry, the futures position’s value is based on the then-current futures price, not necessarily the spot price.
  • A long call and short put with matching strikes create a synthetic long position at expiry.
  • No-arbitrage links the call-put price difference to the value of a forward-like purchase commitment.
  • Discounting and contract settlement conventions affect the detailed parity relation.

Tags

Full text
# put call parity for futures options derivation in Hull


# put call parity for futures options derivation in Hull












In Hull, the following derivation of PCP for futures options:

What confuses me is that it is stated that the payoff of the long futures is $F_t-F_0$. The footnote states: the analysis assumes that a futures contract is like a forward contract and settled and the end of its life rather than on a day to day basis. I'm not really sure why we can say this is the futures payoff when the futures payoff is: $S_t - F_0$.

## Answer by airguru (score 2, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/20995

Futures payoff is indeed $S_t-F_0$, but the $t$ in question is the maturity date of futures. In this derivation $t$ denotes maturity date of the option, which is always before the futures maturity. Therefore, on the day of option maturities, the futures did not expire yet, but the value of the futures position is $F_t-F_0$ (in mark-to-market sense, you can obtain the value by liquidating the position), and in this sense we can see the future position as having "payoff" of $F_t-F_0$. It's more of a wordplay, than anything substantial to the case.

I don't know if Hull prefaces this derivation with simpler explanation, but maybe my take on put/call parity will help you:

1) Let's say you Buy call option and sell Put option, both with strike $K$.

2) Then at expiry, if market price is higher then strike, you exercise call and obtain long position. If market is lower then strike, counterparty exercises the put against you and again you have long position. So no matter what, you end up with long position (this is called creating synthetic position).

3) So, price of Call minus price of Put must be equal to the price of agreeing to buy underlying for the price $K$ at some day in future (maturity date of the options). (otherwise there would be riskless arbitrage for you).

4) This is the basic idea, and then you add details, like, whether the undelying is futures or not, whether you pay option premium immediately or not etc. Simply, you sort out what's the value of "agreeing to buy X in the future for price K" and whether you discount the option price, and these product-specific things.

## Answer by Randor (score 0)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/21016

the futures payoff, at the option expiry date is not St-F0.

the futures payoff at the option expiry date is Ft-F0. note that Ft<>St since note that the futures will expiry AFTER the option expiry.

the reason this is the futures payoff is because the money in the futures margin account earns zero interest, and by payoff, we mean the money in the margin account.

Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)

This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.