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Quanto Adjustments from Correlated Brownian Motions and Measure Changes

Article Quant Q&A · Author: A.Oreo

Summary

The document derives the drift adjustment behind a quanto expectation formula. It explains that the asset value and the likelihood ratio connecting two probability measures are correlated, and that changing measures alters the asset’s drift. Applying the measure change gives a covariance-related adjustment proportional to the volatilities, their correlation, and the time horizon, which accounts for the exponential factor in the expectation relation.

The addendum works through the derivation using correlated Brownian motions, a decomposition into independent components, and Girsanov’s theorem. It also defines the reciprocal Radon–Nikodym derivative used to rewrite the expectation under the alternate measure. The result relies on the stated diffusion assumptions and consistent correlation conventions; the sign depends on how the correlation and measure change are defined. The treatment is theoretical and does not provide a numerical example or discuss practical calibration.

Key ideas

  • Changing probability measures changes the drift of the asset process.
  • The quanto adjustment arises from covariance between the asset and the measure-change likelihood ratio.
  • The derivation uses correlated Brownian motions and Girsanov’s theorem.
  • The sign of the adjustment depends on the correlation convention and the direction of the measure change.
  • The result assumes diffusion dynamics with the stated volatility structure.

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Full text
# quanto adjustments


# quanto adjustments












Here is `quanto adjustments` in John Hull's book `Options, Futures and Other Derivatives 9th` `page 699.`

I know that we have $$E_X[V] = E_Y[VW].$$ And, $V$ and $W$ should be both martingale under $Y$-measure, so we simply write $$\dfrac{dV}{V} = \sigma_V d W_V$$ $$\dfrac{dW}{W} = \sigma_W d W_W$$ $$d W_Vd W_W = \rho d t$$ But how can we obtain the final result in the book $$E_X[V] = E_Y[V]e^{\rho \sigma_V\sigma_W T}.$$ It seems not the same result as two log-normal?

## Answer by Gordon (score 3, accepted)

https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/35622

I believe that the dynamics for $V$, under $Y$, is not the form you provided. In particular, a measure change will change the drift of $V$. Specifically, the dynamics of $V$ is typically of the form \begin{align*} \frac{dV}{V} = -\sigma_V\sigma_W \rho dt + \sigma_V d W_V. \end{align*} You can now check that the final result holds.

> Addendum

We assume that, under $X$, $V$ satisfies an SDE of the form \begin{align*} \frac{dV}{V} = \sigma_V d \widetilde{W}_V. \end{align*} Moreover, the Radon-Nikodym derivative $\eta = \frac{dY}{dX}$ satisfies \begin{align*} \frac{d\eta}{\eta} = \sigma_W d \widetilde{W}_W, \end{align*} where $d\langle \widetilde{W}_V, \widetilde{W}_W\rangle = \tilde{\rho} dt$. Then, by Cholesky decomposition, \begin{align*} \frac{d\eta}{\eta} = \sigma_W d \left(\tilde{\rho}\widetilde{W}_V+ \sqrt{1-\tilde{\rho}^2} \widetilde{B}_W\right). \end{align*} where $\widetilde{W}_V$ and $\widetilde{B}_W$ are two independent standard Brownian motions. Moreover, by Girsanov transformation, \begin{align*} W_V &= \widetilde{W}_V - \sigma_W \tilde{\rho} t\, \mbox{ and}\\ B_W &= \widetilde{B}_W - \sigma_W \sqrt{1-\tilde{\rho}^2} t \end{align*} are two standard Brownian motions under $Y$. Let $W= \eta^{-1} = \left(\frac{dY}{dX}\right)^{-1}$. Then, under $Y$, \begin{align*} \frac{dV}{V} &= \sigma_V\sigma_W\tilde{\rho} dt +\sigma_V d W_V,\\ \frac{dW}{W} &=\eta d\left(\frac{1}{\eta}\right)\\ &= -\frac{d\eta}{\eta}+\frac{1}{\eta^2} d\langle \eta,\eta\rangle\\ &=\sigma_W^2 dt -\sigma_W d \left(\tilde{\rho}\widetilde{W}_V+ \sqrt{1-\tilde{\rho}^2} \widetilde{B}_W\right)\\ &=-\sigma_W d \left(\tilde{\rho}W_V+ \sqrt{1-\tilde{\rho}^2} B_W\right). \end{align*} Let $\rho=-\tilde{\rho}$ and $W_W=\tilde{\rho}W_V+ \sqrt{1-\tilde{\rho}^2} B_W$. Then, under $Y$, \begin{align*} \frac{dV}{V} &= -\sigma_V\sigma_W\rho dt +\sigma_V d W_V,\\ \frac{dW}{W} &=\sigma_W d W_W, \end{align*} where $d\langle W_V, W_W\rangle_t = \rho dt.$ Moreover, \begin{align*} E_X(V) &= E_Y\left(\frac{dX}{dY} V \right)\\ &=E_Y\left(\left(\frac{dY}{dX}\right)^{-1} V \right)\\ &=E_Y(VW). \end{align*}

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This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.