Risk-Neutral Option Densities and Their Limits for VaR
Summary
The discussion explains how a cross-section of call or put prices at a shared expiry can imply a risk-neutral distribution of the underlying price. Differentiating option value twice with respect to strike gives the density, after adjusting for the relevant discount factor. With discrete strike data, the post suggests estimating the curvature through a spline or a finite-difference calculation.
The central caveat is that this is a risk-neutral distribution, not the real-world distribution needed for Value at Risk. Converting between them requires assumptions about how the measures relate; stochastic volatility makes that modeling more involved. The resulting density applies to the option expiry and the specified pricing measure, so it does not by itself provide real-world risk estimates at other horizons. The discussion offers a derivation and practical approximation, but no empirical validation or complete method for those conversions.
Key ideas
- Option prices across strikes at a common expiry can imply a risk-neutral terminal price density.
- The density is obtained from the second strike derivative of option prices, adjusted for discounting.
- Spline interpolation or finite differences can approximate the derivative from discrete quotes.
- An option-implied risk-neutral density is not the real-world distribution required for VaR.
- Using the density for other horizons or measures requires additional modeling assumptions.
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Full text
# on "recovering probability distributions from option prices" - how to subtract influence of stochastic volatility?
# on "recovering probability distributions from option prices" - how to subtract influence of stochastic volatility?
This is based on a 1995 paper by Rubinstein/Jackwerth by the above title where the authors produces a distribution of stock prices inferred from option prices. But their approach only produces a joint distribution of stock prices and whatever other contributing factors, most prominent being volatility.
My question is: is there another way to make out this distribution which also incorporates the expected changes in volatility based on say vix futures? A reference to paper or code will be helpful. Is the difference not sufficient to agonize over? I am interested in computing VaR, that too at time horizons other than the option expiry.
Thanks
## Answer by Brian B (score 4)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/503
You cannot derive the probability distribution you require, because for VaR you need a real-world probability distribution. From the options prices, it is only possible to obtain a risk-neutral distribution.
Now, if you are willing to assume some kind of parametric relationship between the risk-neutral and real-world distributions, then you might find the options prices useful. The resulting mathematics for a stochastic volatility model is somewhat tricky, however. You can find most of it in Jim Gatheral's books. A sloppy treatment would just take the risk-neutral distribution and shift its mean.
Obtaining the approximate risk-neutral distribution is fairly simple. Let p(S) be the time-T risk-neutral probability density. Then we see that (TeX notation alert) \begin{equation} C := Call(T) = B(0,T) \int_0^\infty Max(0,S-K) p(S) dS \end{equation} \begin{equation} \frac{dC}{dK} = B(0,T) \int_0^\infty 1[S>=K] (-1) p(S) dS \qquad\text{[differentiate under integral] } \end{equation} \begin{equation} \frac{dC}{dK} = B(0,T) \int_K^\infty (-1) p(S) dS \end{equation} \begin{equation} \frac{d^2C}{dK^2} = B(0,T) p(K) \qquad \text{ [Fundamental thm of calculus]} \end{equation} Alternatively, you could say that p(S) is the density, and is the derivative of the cumulative distribution function P(S), and write
\begin{equation} C := Call(T) = B(0,T) \int_0^\infty Max(0,S-K) p(S) dS \end{equation} \begin{equation} \frac{dC}{dK} = B(0,T) \int_0^\infty 1[S>=K] (-1) p(S) dS \qquad\text{[differentiate under integral] } \end{equation} \begin{equation} \frac{dC}{dK} = B(0,T) \int_K^\infty (-1) p(S) dS \end{equation} \begin{equation} \frac{dC}{dK} = B(0,T) (-1) ( P(\infty) - P(K)) \end{equation} \begin{equation} \frac{d^2C}{dK^2} = B(0,T) p(K) \end{equation}
Either way you end up finding the density
\begin{equation} p(x) = \frac{1}{B(0,T)} \frac{d^2C(x)}{dx^2} \end{equation} where $x$ is the strike. So an approximate density comes from using the actual option prices available to you. You can spline interpolate, or if you have a regular grid of strikes spaced by dK you can make a histogram of values \begin{equation} \frac{ C(K+dK) - 2C(K) +C(K-dK) }{ dK^2} \end{equation} and divide by the discount factor to find your risk-neutral distribution.
## Answer by quant_dev (score 2)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/416
It would help if you made your question more clear (or included a link to a copy of the paper). If you know call (or put) option prices for a single stock across all strikes $K$ for common expiry $T$, you can then derive the distribution of the stock price at time $T$ in the $T$-forward measure (in which the numeraire is the zero-coupon bond with maturity $T$, and the price of the put option is $V_K(t) = D(T) E[(K-S(T))^+]$, $D(T)$ being the discount factor to expiry $T$). You can do this by differentiating $V_K(T)$ twice over $K$ and dividing by $D(T)$. This will give you simply the distribution of the stock price in the $T$-forward measure, nothing more and nothing else. In other measures (in particular in the real-world measure) this distribution will be different.Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.