Risk-Neutral Pricing of a Fractional-Power Payoff
Summary
The document works through pricing a claim that pays the cube root of the underlying asset at maturity. The asset is initially specified with mean-reverting drift and proportional diffusion, while a money-market account earns a constant rate. The proposed solution changes to a risk-neutral measure with Girsanov’s theorem, choosing a drift adjustment so the asset’s risk-neutral drift becomes the risk-free rate. It then discounts the conditional expected payoff.
Under the resulting geometric Brownian dynamics, the terminal asset value is lognormal, so its cube root is also lognormal. Taking the expectation gives a closed-form price depending on the current asset level, time to maturity, interest rate, and volatility. This is an illustrative derivation of risk-neutral valuation and lognormal moments, not a general recipe for every market model. The argument relies on the stated dynamics and measure change being valid; it does not examine technical conditions for the change of measure or broader market completeness.
Key ideas
- Risk-neutral valuation prices a maturity payoff by taking its conditional expectation under a risk-neutral measure and discounting it.
- Girsanov’s theorem adjusts the Brownian motion so the asset’s drift matches the risk-free rate under the proposed measure.
- With geometric Brownian dynamics, the terminal asset value is lognormally distributed.
- A fractional power of a lognormal variable remains lognormal, which makes its expectation tractable.
- The derivation depends on its specified model and does not establish the required measure-change conditions in detail.
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# Risk-neutral pricing to determine no-arbitrage price
# Risk-neutral pricing to determine no-arbitrage price
We are asked to consider a derivative with payoff $C_t = S_{T}^{1/3}$ at maturity $T > 0$ and to use risk neutral pricing to derve the no-arbitrage price process $C_{t}$.
Some context:
Let $W$ be a standard Browian motion. We are in a financial market consisting of a risky asset $S$ and a money-market account $B$ with:
$$dS_t = a(b - S_t)dt + \sigma S_tdW_t$$ $$dB_t = rB_tdt$$
where, $$B_0 = 1,\; S_0 = s_0, \;\sigma > 0 \; \text{and}\; a,b \; \text{are constants unequal to zero.}$$
I presume we have to either use the First Fundamental Theorem of Asset Pricing, Girsanov's theorem or both, however I have a hard time determining where to start. Could someone help me out?
$\text{Quick note:}$
The FFTAP tells us that under regularity conditions absence of arbitrage holds if and only if, for some numeraire $N$, there exists a probability measure $\mathbb{Q} = \mathbb{Q}_N$ such that:
- $\mathbb{Q} \sim \mathbb{P}$
- For any asset $A$ in the market, the discounted price process $A/N$ is a $\mathbb{Q}$-martingale, i.e. $$\frac{A_t}{N_t} = \mathbb{E_Q}\left[ \frac{A_T}{N_T} | \mathcal{F}_t \right]$$
## Answer by mmencke (score 1, accepted)
https://quant.stackexchange.com/a/69067
To find the $S$-dynamics under $\mathbb{Q}$ we have to use Girsanov's theorem: $$dW_t^P=\varphi_t dt+dW_t^Q$$ Dynamics under $\mathbb{Q}$ is thus $$dS_t=a(b-S_t)dt+\sigma S_t(\varphi_t dt+dW_t^Q)=abdt-aS_tdt+\varphi_t\sigma S_tdt+\sigma S_t dW_t^Q$$ To avoid any arbitrage opportunities the (local) rate of return must be equal to the risk-free rate meaning that $$\mathbb{E}[dS_t]=rS_tdt$$ $$\iff$$ $$abdt-aS_tdt+\varphi_t\sigma S_tdt=rS_t dt$$ $$\iff$$ $$-\frac{ab}{S_t}+a+r=\varphi_t \sigma$$ $$\iff$$ $$\frac{-\frac{ab}{S_t}+a+r}{\sigma}=\varphi_t$$ We have thus found the Girsanov kernel. Plugging it into the dynamics $$dS_t=a(b-S_t)dt+\sigma S_t(\varphi_t dt+dW_t^Q)=abdt-aS_tdt+\frac{-\frac{ab}{S_t}+a+r}{\sigma}\sigma S_tdt+\sigma S_t dW_t^Q=rS_t dt+\sigma S_t dW_t^Q$$ The price of the derivative is the risk-neutral expectation discounted at the risk-free rate $$C_t=e^{-r(T-t)}\mathbb{E}^Q[S_T^{1/3}]$$ We can write $S_T$ as $$S_T=S_te^{(r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)(T-t)+\sigma (W_T^Q-W_t^Q)}$$ which is equal in distribution with $$S_T=S_te^{(r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)(T-t)+\sigma \sqrt{T-t}\varepsilon}$$ where $\varepsilon$ is a standard normal variable. This gives us $$S_T^{1/3}=S_t^{1/3}e^{\frac{1}{3}(r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)(T-t)+\frac{1}{3}\sigma \sqrt{T-t}\varepsilon}$$ and $$\log(S_T^{1/3})=\log(S_t^{1/3})+\frac{1}{3}(r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)(T-t)+\frac{1}{3}\sigma \sqrt{T-t}\varepsilon$$ So $S_T^{1/3}$ is log-normally distributed with mean $\frac{1}{3}\left(\log(S_t)+(r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)(T-t)\right)$ and variance $\frac{1}{3^2}\sigma^2(T-t)$ The mean of a log-normal distribution is given by $e^{\mu+\sigma^2/2}$, so $$\mathbb{E}\left[S_T^{1/3}\right]=e^{\frac{1}{3}\left(\log(S_t)+(r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)(T-t)\right)+\frac{\frac{1}{9}\sigma^2(T-t)}{2}}=S_t^{1/3}e^{\frac{1}{3}(r-\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)(T-t)+\frac{1}{18}\sigma^2(T-t)}=S_t^{1/3}e^{\frac{1}{3}r(T-t)-\frac{1}{9}\sigma^2(T-t)}$$ It should now be easy to find the price of the derivative $$C_t=e^{-r(T-t)}S_t^{1/3}e^{\frac{1}{3}r(T-t)-\frac{1}{9}\sigma^2(T-t)}=S_t^{1/3}e^{-\frac{2}{3}r(T-t)-\frac{1}{9}\sigma^2(T-t)}$$Shown in full with attribution under the source's licence. Licence: CC BY-SA 4.0 (Stack Exchange)
This summary was written by Stratmill's research agent from the original; it is not a copy of the source.